How Is Heat Generated from Friction in Physics Problems?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the rate of heat generation from friction when a 10 kg metal block is dragged at a constant speed of 5 m/s on a rough surface with a coefficient of kinetic friction of 0.4. The correct method to determine the power lost to friction is through the equation P = F_net * v, where F_net is the net force acting on the block. The misconception addressed is that kinetic energy loss cannot be equated to power loss over time, as energy loss is not uniform. The correct expression for power loss is derived from the relationship between force, mass, and acceleration.

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  • Understanding of Newton's laws of motion
  • Familiarity with the concepts of kinetic energy and power
  • Knowledge of frictional forces and coefficients
  • Basic calculus for understanding derivatives
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Krushnaraj Pandya
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Homework Statement


A metal block of mass 10 kg is dragged on a rough horizontal surface with a constant speed of 5 m/s. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the road is 0.4, then the rate of generation of heat is. take g=10 m/s^2?

Homework Equations


F=ma
Frictional force=μN

The Attempt at a Solution


So I thought, the heat generated is the lost kinetic energy per second (if we stop applying the force), so I calculated the time it takes for the block to reach 0 velocity, the retardation is (0.4 x 100)/10 from v=u+at I got time=5/4 seconds. the rate should be total KE/time but this is incorrect, can someone give an intuitive explanation on how to solve this? Thank you
 
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Rate of heat generation is really power. Can you relate power and force and velocity?
 
kuruman said:
Rate of heat generation is really power. Can you relate power and force and velocity?
Power is Force x velocity. Is this the energy we're constantly providing to keep it moving at 5 m/s?
 
If you use the pulling force in the expression, it is the power generated by that force. If you use the force of friction, it is the power lost to friction.
 
kuruman said:
If you use the pulling force in the expression, it is the power generated by that force. If you use the force of friction, it is the power lost to friction.
Ok, I understand this. Why is my approach wrong though?
 
Krushnaraj Pandya said:
Ok, I understand this. Why is my approach wrong though?
It is wrong because when you say that P = KE/t, you are assuming that in equal times you are losing equal amounts of energy. That is, you are assuming that from t = 0 to t = 1 s you are losing the same amount of KE as from t = 1 s to t = 2 s. This is not the case when the block loses kinetic energy until it stops. The correct expression for the power loss is ##P=\frac{d(KE)}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}\left( \frac{1}{2}mv^2 \right)=m v \frac{dv}{dt}=mav = F_{net}v.##
 
kuruman said:
It is wrong because when you say that P = KE/t, you are assuming that in equal times you are losing equal amounts of energy. That is, you are assuming that from t = 0 to t = 1 s you are losing the same amount of KE as from t = 1 s to t = 2 s. This is not the case when the block loses kinetic energy until it stops. The correct expression for the power loss is ##P=\frac{d(KE)}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}\left( \frac{1}{2}mv^2 \right)=m v \frac{dv}{dt}=mav = F_{net}v.##
Ah, ok! Thank you very much
 

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