Help me understand why this summation index is not j

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a specific aspect of Markov Chains, particularly focusing on the summation indices in the context of an inner product involving a probability vector and a function. Participants are trying to understand why a term is summed over one index rather than another, leading to confusion about the expressions presented in a referenced source.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the reasoning behind the choice of summation index in the context of matrix-vector operations in Markov Chains. There are questions about the correctness of the expressions provided in the source material and the implications of switching indices in summations.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered insights regarding potential typos in the referenced material, suggesting that the expressions may not have been accurately presented. Others are questioning the validity of the steps taken in the derivations and discussing the implications of the balance condition in relation to the self-adjoint property of the matrix involved.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of a "balance condition" that is crucial for the properties of the matrix in question, and participants are grappling with the implications of this condition on the correctness of the expressions being analyzed. The discussion reflects a mix of confusion and attempts to clarify the mathematical relationships at play.

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The below image is an excerpt from a website about Markov Chains.

In the red boxed which I put in the image, I don't understand why the term ##g(i)## isn't being summed over ##j## instead of ##i##, since the outer sum is over the ##i##th element of the vector ##Pg##, which is the dot product between the ##i##th row of ##P## and ##g##.

I expected ##\langle f,Pg \rangle## to expand as $$\sum_i f(i)(Pg)_i \pi_i = \sum_i f(i)\Big(\sum_jP_{ij}g(j)\Big)\pi_i .$$

But, the website shows $$\langle f,Pg \rangle= \sum_i f(i)\Big(\sum_jP_{ij}g(i)\Big)\pi_i .$$ What am I misunderstanding?



Screenshot 2024-02-12 at 9.58.44 PM.png

Screenshot 2024-02-12 at 9.58.50 PM.png
 
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In the theory of Markov chains, don't they do the matrix-vector operation back-to-front? Just to be different.
 
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PeroK said:
In the theory of Markov chains, don't they do the matrix-vector operation back-to-front? Just to be different.
Yes, if you mean left side multiplication, I think for probability distributions. Right side multiplication is done for expected values. The special inner product is defined using ##Pg## so I thought it was the usual right side multiplication... I am also not understanding how in the last line, ##P_{ji}## is switched with ##P_{ij}## as soon as the summation order changed.. 😭 :bow::headbang:
 
Obvious misprint.
 
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PeroK said:
In the theory of Markov chains, don't they do the matrix-vector operation back-to-front? Just to be different.
Even if that is the case (I have not checked), the quoted expressions have typos. Exactly what they should be depends on this definition so I am not going to get into details regarding that.
 
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Having browsed the page: The first equation in the quote should have ##g(j)##, not ##g(i)##. This is also clear from the second step where they do write ##g(j)##.

For the second equation they should not have switched the indices and their target expression should not have switched indices.

I’d say a case of bad proof reading in general.
 
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Thank you ! you saved me from an existential crisis for now. :eek::oldsurprised:
 
docnet said:
Thank you ! you saved me from an existential crisis for now. :eek::oldsurprised:
It all hinges on the "balance condition". ##P## is ##\pi##-self-adjoint iff that condition holds.
 
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PeroK said:
It all hinges on the "balance condition". ##P## is ##\pi##-self-adjoint iff that condition holds.
Yes, but that was used already when writing the first expression in that equation down. The step where they just switch the indices on P is actually wrong and results in a wrong expression that they then interpret as if it were the correct one.
 
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  • #10
Orodruin said:
Yes, but that was used already when writing the first expression in that equation down. The step where they just switch the indices on P is actually wrong and results in a wrong expression that they then interpret as if it were the correct one.
It is a mess. At this level, I would expect to highlight that the balance condition is precisely the condition that makes ##P## self-adjoint. It's not just useful for the proof, it's the whole basis of the proof.
 
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  • #11
The way I would do this is simply.
$$\langle f,Pg \rangle = \sum_i f(i)\Big(\sum_jP_{ij}g(j)\Big)\pi_i = \sum_{i,j} f(i)g(j)\pi_iP_{ij}$$$$= \sum_{i,j} f(i)g(j)\pi_jP_{ji} =\sum_{i,j} P_{ji} f(i)g(j)\pi_j = \langle Pf, g \rangle$$
 
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  • #12
PeroK said:
The way I would do this is simply.
$$\langle f,Pg \rangle = \sum_i f(i)\Big(\sum_jP_{ij}g(j)\Big)\pi_i = \sum_{i,j} f(i)g(j)\pi_iP_{ij}$$$$= \sum_{i,j} f(i)g(j)\pi_jP_{ji} =\sum_{i,j} P_{ji} f(i)g(j)\pi_j = \langle Pf, g \rangle$$
That's sort of what I did as well! I thought about adding an extra step

$$\sum_{i,j} P_{ji} f(i)g(j)\pi_j=
\sum_j g(j)\Big(\sum_iP_{ji}f(i)\Big)\pi_j=
\langle Pf, g \rangle$$

where the change of the order of the summation is allowed because the double sum would converge absolutely, conditional on ##g(j)## and ##f(i)## being bounded in ##\mathbb{R}^n##. (And because ##P_{ij}\leq 1## for all ##i,j,## and ##\sum_j\pi_j=1##.)
 
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