Help on the proof related to the vectorial wave equation

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around a proof related to the vectorial wave equation, specifically addressing the relationship between a vector field defined by a curl operation and a scalar function under certain conditions. The scope includes theoretical exploration and mathematical reasoning rather than homework assistance.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a problem statement involving the vector field \(\vec{M}\) and seeks a general proof that connects it to the scalar function \(\psi\).
  • Another participant suggests using vector identities involving the curl operation to potentially simplify the proof.
  • A third participant mentions the Ricci Calculus as a helpful tool, while questioning whether the discussion fits the homework category.
  • A later reply indicates that the problem has been resolved, thanking the previous contributor for their guidance.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the appropriateness of the thread's placement in the forum, with differing views on whether it resembles a homework problem.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions regarding the applicability of vector identities and the specific conditions under which the proof holds may be missing. The discussion does not resolve the general proof sought by the initial poster.

elgen
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Dear forum users,

I need some help on the following proof that appears in a book (pp. 84 in Bohren' Absorption and Scattering of light by Small Particles). This is no a home work problem.

The problem statement:

[itex]\vec{M} = \nabla\times\vec{c}\psi[/itex], where [itex]\vec{c}[/itex] is some constant vector and [itex]\psi[/itex] is a scalar function, then if [itex]-\nabla\times\nabla\times\vec{M}+k^2\vec{M}=0[/itex] where [itex]k[/itex] is the wave number, then prove that [itex]\nabla^2 \psi + k^2\psi=0[/itex].

I could prove for the cases by using a curve-linear coordinate system, etc. rectangular, cylindrical, etc. I am seeking a general proof. I suspect that there is some vectorial identity applicable here.

Thank you for the attention.Elgen
 
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What happens if you use ## \nabla \times c \psi = c \nabla \times \psi +\nabla c \times \psi ## and ## \nabla \times \nabla \times A = \nabla (\nabla \cdot A) - \nabla^2 A##?
 
The (Cartesian) Ricci Calculus is your friend here. But isn't this more homework like? So I'd say, this thread should be moved to the homework section of these forums!
 
Worked it out. Thank you for the pointer.
 

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