Help with Understanding Locally Compact Spaces & Subspaces

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A compact space is automatically locally compact because every point can have the entire space as a compact neighborhood. However, the subspace of rational numbers, Q, is not locally compact since it lacks compact neighborhoods for its points. To demonstrate this, one can consider any point in Q and show that any neighborhood includes irrational points, which prevents it from being contained in a compact subspace. The discussion emphasizes that locally compact spaces require every point to have a compact neighborhood, whereas compactness applies to the entire space. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for grasping the properties of locally compact and compact spaces.
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hi.. how can we say a compact space automatically a locally compact? how subspace Q of rational numbers is not locally compact? am not able to understand these.. can anyone help me?
 
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Locally compact is in a certain sense a weaker assertion than compactness. Here is a hint to show that Q is not locally compact. Take a point x and define some neighbourhood. Then show that this neighbourhood is not contained in a compact subspace. To do so consider an irrational point in the neighbourhood. Also as a further hint use limit point compactness. This is one way to prove it. Let me know if you are still stuck.
 
abiyo said:
Locally compact is in a certain sense a weaker assertion than compactness.
Why do you say "in a certain sense"? It's just weaker; locally compact means: every point has a compact neighbourhood. If the whole space is compact, for any point you just take the whole space as compact neighborhood.
winmath said:
how subspace Q of rational numbers is not locally compact?
Just try to find a compact neighborhood of q\in Q.
 
Landau; Thanks for the correction. Locally compactness is just weaker. I don't know what I was thinking.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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