Homomorphisms between two isomorphic rings ?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of ring homomorphisms between two isomorphic commutative rings, specifically questioning whether any ring homomorphism from one ring to another is necessarily an isomorphism.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of defining a ring homomorphism and question the validity of the statement that all homomorphisms between isomorphic rings are isomorphisms. They consider counterexamples, including mapping polynomials to their constant terms.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided examples and counterexamples to illustrate their points, while others have reiterated the claim from the textbook that the statement is false. The discussion is ongoing, with various interpretations being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the original problem assumes the rings are non-zero and isomorphic, which raises questions about the nature of the homomorphisms being discussed.

robertjordan
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Homework Statement


True or False?
Let R and S be two isomorphic commutative rings (S=/={0}). Then any ring homomorphism from R to S is an isomorphism.

Homework Equations



R being a commutative ring means it's an abelian group under addition, and has the following additional properties:

i) a*(b+c)=a*b+a*c
ii) ab=ba
iii) a*(b*c)=(a*b)*c
iv) there exists an element eR s.t. a*eR=a for all a in R.



A "ring homomorphism" from R to S is a function f from R to S such that
i) f(a)*f(b)=f(a*b)
ii) f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b)
iii) f(eS)=eR

The Attempt at a Solution


BAck of the book says false

I thought to make f(a)=0S for all a in S which would have worked as a counterexample but but it implies f(eR)=0S which by property (iii) of ring homomorphisms implies eR=0S which means a=a*eS=a*0S=0 so a=0 for all a in S but that means S={0} which is a contradiction.


Thanks for reading
 
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robertjordan said:

The Attempt at a Solution


BAck of the book says false

I thought to make f(a)=0S for all a in S which would have worked as a counterexample but but it implies f(eR)=0S which by property (iii) of ring homomorphisms implies eR=0S which means a=a*eS=a*0S=0 so a=0 for all a in S but that means S={0} which is a contradiction.
Consider for example a polynomial ring, such as ##\mathbb{R}[x]##. Clearly it is isomorphic to itself. But there are many homomorphisms from ##\mathbb{R}[x] \to \mathbb{R}[x]## which are not isomorphisms. Can you find one?
 
jbunniii said:
Consider for example a polynomial ring, such as ##\mathbb{R}[x]##. Clearly it is isomorphic to itself. But there are many homomorphisms from ##\mathbb{R}[x] \to \mathbb{R}[x]## which are not isomorphisms. Can you find one?
A homomorphism could me mapping every polynomial to its constant term (term without an x).
Say ##P_{1}(x)=c_{n}x^n+...+c_{1}x+c_{0}## and
##P_{2}(x)=k_{m}x^n+...+k_{1}x+k_{0}##

So ##f(P_{1}(x)P_{2}(x))=c_{0}k_{0}=f(P_{1}(x)f(P_{2}(x))##
Also, ##f(P_{1}(x)+P_{2}(x))=c_{0}+k_{0}=f(P_{1}(x)+f(P_{2}(x))##
And lastly, ##f(1)=1##.

So indeed this is a ring homomorphism, but obviously it is not surjective or injective.Is this right?
 
robertjordan said:
A homomorphism could me mapping every polynomial to its constant term (term without an x).
Say ##P_{1}(x)=c_{n}x^n+...+c_{1}x+c_{0}## and
##P_{2}(x)=k_{m}x^n+...+k_{1}x+k_{0}##

So ##f(P_{1}(x)P_{2}(x))=c_{0}k_{0}=f(P_{1}(x)f(P_{2}(x))##
Also, ##f(P_{1}(x)+P_{2}(x))=c_{0}+k_{0}=f(P_{1}(x)+f(P_{2}(x))##
And lastly, ##f(1)=1##.

So indeed this is a ring homomorphism, but obviously it is not surjective or injective.


Is this right?
Yes, that's the example I had in mind.
 

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