MHB How Can Laplace's Method Simplify This Integral?

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Laplace's Method can be applied to the integral I_n(x) = ∫(log_e t) e^{-x(t-1)^{n}} dt from 1 to 2 to simplify its evaluation as x approaches infinity. The key steps involve identifying the maximum of the exponent and expanding the functions around this point. The integral can be transformed into a more manageable form, leading to the approximation I_n(x) ∼ (1/n)x^{-2/n} ∫(τ^{(2-n)/n} e^{-τ} dτ) as x → ∞. For specific cases, the leading order behavior of I_1(x) and I_2(x) can be derived from this approximation. This method effectively reveals the asymptotic behavior of the integral for large x values.
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Consider the integral
\begin{equation}
I_n(x)=\int^{2}_{1} (log_{e}t) e^{-x(t-1)^{n}}dt
\end{equation}
Use Laplace's Method to show that
\begin{equation}
I_n(x) \sim \frac{1}{nx^\frac{2}{n}} \int^{\infty}_{0} \tau^{\frac{2-n}{n}} e^{-\tau} d\tau \end{equation}
as $x\rightarrow\infty$.
where $0<n\leq2$. Hence find the leading order behaviour of $I_{1}(x)$. and $I_{2}(x)$ as $x\rightarrow \infty$.
=>
Its really difficult question for me.
Here,
$g(t) = -(t-1)^{n}$ has the maximum at $t=0$
but $h(t)= log_{e}t$ at $t=0$
$h(0)=0$.
so I can not go any further. PLEASE HELP ME.
 
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grandy said:
Consider the integral
\begin{equation}
I_n(x)=\int^{2}_{1} (log_{e}t) e^{-x(t-1)^{n}}dt
\end{equation}
Use Laplace's Method to show that
\begin{equation}
I_n(x) \sim \frac{1}{nx^\frac{2}{n}} \int^{\infty}_{0} \tau^{\frac{2-n}{n}} e^{-\tau} d\tau \end{equation}
as $x\rightarrow\infty$.
where $0<n\leq2$. Hence find the leading order behaviour of $I_{1}(x)$. and $I_{2}(x)$ as $x\rightarrow \infty$.
=>
Its really difficult question for me.
Here,
$g(t) = -(t-1)^{n}$ has the maximum at $t=0$
but $h(t)= log_{e}t$ at $t=0$
$h(0)=0$.
so I can not go any further. PLEASE HELP ME.

First it is useful to write the integral in a more suitable form...

$\displaystyle I_{n} (x) = \int_{0}^{1} \ln (1 + t)\ e^{- x\ t^{n}}\ d t\ (9)$

The Laplace integration of an expression like...

$\displaystyle I(x) = \int_{a}^{b} f(t)\ e^{- x\ g(t)}\ dt\ (2)$

... consists in approximating (2) with an expression which is valid for 'large' x according with the following steps...

a) let's suppose that g(t) has a minimum in t= c, being c in [a,b]...

b) we expand in Taylor series f(t) and g(t) around t=c...

c) we extend the integration range in $(- \infty, + \infty)$ or in $[0, + \infty)$ if c=0 and try to use the properties of the Laplace Transform [that's why this procedure is called 'Laplace Integration'...]

Now we can procced taking into account that is $\displaystyle f(t) = \ln (1 + t) \sim t$, $\displaystyle g(t)= t^{n}$ which has a minimum in x=0...

$\displaystyle I_{n} (x) = \int_{0}^{1} \ln (1 + t)\ e^{- x\ t^{n}}\ d t \sim \frac{1}{n}\ \int_{0}^{\infty} \tau^{\frac{1}{n}-1}\ \ln (1 + \tau^{\frac{1}{n}})\ e^{- x\ \tau}\ d \tau\ \sim$

$\displaystyle \sim \frac{1}{n}\ \int_{0}^{\infty} \tau^{\frac{2}{n}-1}\ e^{- x\ \tau}\ d \tau = \frac{\Gamma (\frac{2}{n})}{n\ x^{\frac{2}{n}}}\ (3)$

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
Last edited:
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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