How Can Signal Models Resolve the EPR Paradox in Special Relativity?

Click For Summary
The discussion explores how signal models can address the EPR paradox within the framework of Special Relativity. It describes a scenario involving an electron and a positron emitted with specific spin states, emphasizing that changes in one particle's spin can be influenced by signals from the other particle and the measurement device. The model suggests that these signals, whether internal or external, allow for communication between the particles without violating the finite speed of signal transmission. Critics argue that entangled particles do not "change" spins but rather exhibit correlated measurements upon observation, challenging the notion of signals influencing spin states. Ultimately, the conversation highlights the complexities of entanglement and the implications for understanding quantum mechanics and relativity.
  • #31
Any measurement process usually involves a huge number of trials/impacts. It is not possible to know the exact number of such trials..One may use a weight to represent such effects[no of trials] and then try to calculate it [or get some estimate of it]from indirect evidences like conformity with accepted principles/theories.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #32
Each moment our measuring system is experiencing the distribution function[or its effect].Each moment it is experiencing the effect of the expected value of an individual trial. In a short interval of time it is giving a report of such cumulative values over the interval
 
  • #33
If the time of measurement in an experiment is very long or sufficiently then of course we get a steady value of the physical quantity because the past effects [of the initial moments] are lost/dissipated.

[The past effects are likely to be lost if the interval is long enough]
 
Last edited:
  • #34
Suppose we are measuring temperature using an ordinary mercury thermometer. We have to provide "sufficient time" so that the temperature may be recorded
 
  • #35
Anamitra said:
Any measurement process usually involves a huge number of trials/impacts. It is not possible to know the exact number of such trials..
Why do you think it's not possible? Each particle measurement is based on a single discrete "click" at some detector, so you can just count the number of clicks, we aren't talking about measuring a continuously-varying quantity like temperature.
 
  • #36
A discrete click may involve a million impacts[the reception of a million impacts--impacts of the distribution function rho]---a discrete click and a single impact are not identical ideas.
 
Last edited:
  • #37
Anamitra said:
A discrete click may involve a million impacts[the reception of a million impacts--impacts of the distribution function rho]
Impacts of what? A "function" isn't a physical entity that can impact with anything. In any case, each "trial" consists of a single click which is recorded as +1 or -1 (or +1/2 and -1/2 if you prefer), regardless of what is really going on physically in each click.
 
  • #38
In a single click of your gadget,you may have to consider the same distribution function[the normalized rho] several million times--the theoretical analysis of a click[what it measures]--involves such a consideration.
 
  • #39
Anamitra said:
In a single click of your gadget,you may have to consider the same distribution function[the normalized rho] several million times--the theoretical analysis of a click[what it measures]--involves such a consideration.
I don't get it, what does it mean to "consider" a function several million times? Do you mean considering several million possible values of lambda which are each assigned probabilities (or probability densities) by the distribution function, or something else?
 
  • #40
What happens "inside" the click is important.We have "hidden variables" that can exist physically and contribute to the result of the click. The result of a click is not a magical thing that you are possibly inclined to believe in. If it is not magical ,how does it occur[I mean how the result of the measurement takes place]? We need to investigate this and the hidden variables can play an important role, a definite role--in a manner I have indicated.
 
  • #41
Anamitra said:
What happens "inside" the click is important.We have "hidden variables" that can exist physically and contribute to the result of the click. The result of a click is not a magical thing that you are possibly inclined to believe in. If it is not magical ,how does it occur[I mean how the result of the measurement takes place]? We need to investigate this and the hidden variables can play an important role, a definite role--in a manner I have indicated.
Huh? This is a totally vague answer, you didn't address my specific questions above about the meaning of "considering" the distribution function several million times. And of course in a hidden variables theory the variables might causally influence the result in a complicated way, but that doesn't change the fact that the result itself is only recorded as one of two possible outcomes, a click at one detector or a click at another. It is the probabilities or expectation values for these recorded outcomes that Bell inequalities are dealing with, an inequality involving hidden variables would be useless since we wouldn't have a way to measure these variables so there'd be no way to test whether the inequality was respected or violated.
 
  • #42
We have the two detectors measuring the spin values of the two particles.These values are not independent.They are related to each other. Some may believe that the connection is a spooky one in its very existence or in relation to the fact that such a relation might lead to the violation of Special Relativity concept of finite speed of signal transmission.
But one may consider "hidden variables" to be responsible for the association between the two spin values.
The two measurements are not instantaneous in the mathematical sense. They involve a huge number of instants[we may think of a short interval broken up into a number of even shorter ones]---and the hidden variables may be operating on the spin states through each these instants.We make a theoretical estimate of the expected spin product[A*B] for each instant and them multiply this expectation by a weight factor to take care of the interval of measurement.
We have the formula:

{P}_{h}{(}{a}{,}{b}{)}{=}{\int}{n}{\rho}{(}{\lambda}{)}{A}{(}{a}{,}{\lambda}{)}{B}{(}{b}{,}{\lambda}{)}{d}{\lambda}

Where,
{\int}{\rho}{(}{\lambda}{)}{n}{d}{\lambda}{=}{n}
 
  • #43
JesseM said:
Of course it does, the inequality would just be modified if you use different numbers to label "spin-up" and "spin-down" measurements. Look at the step at the top of p. 406 (p. 4 of the pdf) of Bell's derivation, he invokes equation (1) which says that A(b,λ) = ±1 in order to justify equating the integrand [A(a,λ)*A(c,λ) - A(a,λ)*A(b,λ)] to the integrand A(a,λ)*A(b,λ)*[A(b,λ)*A(c,λ) - 1]...in other words, he's using the fact that A(b,λ)*A(b,λ)=+1. If you instead labeled the results with +(1/2) and -(1/2), then A(b,λ)*A(b,λ)=+(1/4), so that step wouldn't work. Instead the second integrand would have to be A(a,λ)*A(b,λ)*[4*A(b,λ)*A(c,λ) - 1].

Continuing on with steps analogous to the ones in Bell's paper, we can then apply the triangle inequality (which works as well for integrals as it does for discrete sums) to show that if P(a,b) - P(a,c) = \int d\lambda \rho(\lambda) A(a,\lambda)A(b,\lambda)[4A(b,\lambda)A(c,\lambda) - 1], that implies \mid P(a,b) - P(a,c) \mid \le \int d\lambda \mid \rho(\lambda) A(a,\lambda)A(b,\lambda)[4A(b,\lambda)A(c,\lambda) - 1] \mid. Since \rho(\lambda) is always positive and A(a,λ)*A(b,λ)=±(1/4) that becomes \mid P(a,b) - P(a,c) \mid \le \int d\lambda \rho(\lambda) (1/4) \mid [4A(b,\lambda)A(c,\lambda) - 1] \mid, then since 4*A(b,λ)*A(c,λ) - 1 is always equal to -2 or 0, its absolute value is always equal to 1 - 4*A(b,λ)*A(c,λ) so we now have \mid P(a,b) - P(a,c) \mid \le \int d\lambda \rho(\lambda) (1/4) [1 - 4A(b,\lambda)A(c,\lambda)] or \mid P(a,b) - P(a,c) \mid \le \int d\lambda \rho(\lambda) [(1/4) - A(b,\lambda)A(c,\lambda)]. Bell then notes that \int d\lambda \rho(\lambda) [-A(b,\lambda)A(c,\lambda)] = P(b,c) and since \int d\lambda \rho(\lambda) = 1 this gives an inequality equivalent to the one Bell derives:

(1/4) + P(b,c) ≥ |P(a,b) - P(a,c)|

With the measurement results labeled +(1/2) or -(1/2), there's no way this inequality can be violated in a realist theory that respects relativity.
By the mechanism provided in the postings 27 and 42 one will obtain:
(1/4)n + P(b,c) ≥ |P(a,b) - P(a,c)|
Instead of
(1/4) + P(b,c) ≥ |P(a,b) - P(a,c)|
The first result will not show any conflict between classical intuition and quantum mechanics
at least in relation to the current discussion.[EPR paradox and Bell's inequalities]
 
  • #44
In the previous posting the values of A and B have been assumed to be +1/2 or -1/2for each instead of +1 or -1[for each]

For A and B equal to +1 or -1 [for each] and this is conventional, we have
n + P(b,c) ≥ |P(a,b) - P(a,c)| instead of

1 + P(b,c) ≥ |P(a,b) - P(a,c)|
 
Last edited:
  • #45
Anamitra said:
By the mechanism provided in the postings 27 and 42 one will obtain:
(1/4)n + P(b,c) ≥ |P(a,b) - P(a,c)|
Are you sure? Terms like P(b,c) and P(a,b) represent expectation values for a single trial, if you want them to represent an expectation value for a sum of results over many trials that would probably change aspects of the derivation, I'm not sure you would actually end up with the equation above. You need to show your work, give the steps in deriving the final inequality like I did.
 
  • #46
Anamitra said:
But one may consider "hidden variables" to be responsible for the association between the two spin values.

Not unless you can show us an example of what they are. You keep providing generic examples. How about something specific? Give us a set of 10 runs of what those values might be for measurement settings 0, 120 and 240 degrees.

You should not make speculative statements as if they are established science. Your ideas have been soundly discredited in the past 30 years by numerous experiments, such as:

http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/9810080

"We observe strong violation of Bell's inequality in an Einstein, Podolsky and Rosen type experiment with independent observers. Our experiment definitely implements the ideas behind the well known work by Aspect et al. We for the first time fully enforce the condition of locality, a central assumption in the derivation of Bell's theorem. The necessary space-like separation of the observations is achieved by sufficient physical distance between the measurement stations, by ultra-fast and random setting of the analyzers, and by completely independent data registration. "
 
  • #47
Response to Posting 45

I have not meant the expectation values of a single trial. In the revised formula I have meant the cumulative expectation values over the time intervals concerned.

P(a,b) in my formula[the revised one] represents n*P(a,b) [ P(a,b) in the term n*P(a,b)represents the expectation value for a single trial]
 
  • #48
Anamitra said:
Response to Posting 45

I have not meant the expectation values of a single trial.
I understood that, but the point is that this is what P(a,b) and such meant in the original formula, if you want to change the meaning of the terms you need to provide a new derivation of an inequality involving the terms with revised meanings.
Anamitra said:
In the revised formula I have meant the cumulative expectation values over the time intervals concerned.
Yes, I understood that as well, which is why I said "if you want them to represent an expectation value for a sum of results over many trials that would probably change aspects of the derivation". My point is that you haven't provided any justification for believing that your modified formula is actually correct under your new definitions, you need to show your work and provide a derivation of that formula.
 
  • #49
JesseM said:
I understood that, but the point is that this is what P(a,b) and such meant in the original formula, if you want to change the meaning of the terms you need to provide a new derivation of an inequality involving the terms with revised meanings.

Yes, I understood that as well, which is why I said "if you want them to represent an expectation value for a sum of results over many trials that would probably change aspects of the derivation". My point is that you haven't provided any justification for believing that your modified formula is actually correct under your new definitions, you need to show your work and provide a derivation of that formula.

I already explained this, but for whatever reason, that part of my post (concerning the necessity of re-derivation of the inequalities) went unaddressed.
 
  • #50
The derivation
{P}{(}{a}{,}{b}{)}{=}{\int}{n}{\rho}{(}{\lambda}{)}{A}{(}{a}{,}{\lambda}{)}{B}{(}{b}{,}{\lambda}{)}{d}{\lambda}
{P}{(}{a}{,}{c}{)}{=}{\int}{n}{\rho}{(}{\lambda}{)}{A}{(}{a}{,}{\lambda}{)}{B}{(}{c}{,}{\lambda}{)}{d}{\lambda}
{P}{(}{b}{,}{c}{)}{=}{\int}{n}{\rho}{(}{\lambda}{)}{A}{(}{b}{,}{\lambda}{)}{B}{(}{c}{,}{\lambda}{)}{d}{\lambda}
The same weight factor has been taken in each case assuming the same type of measuring technique.
Important to note that,
{B}{(}{a}{,}{\lambda}{)}{=}{-}{A}{(}{a}{,}{\lambda}{)}
[One may consider Bell’s paper [from the first link in posting 23] for the above relation.
Now we proceed:
{P}{(}{a}{,}{b}{)}{-}{P}{(}{a}{,}{c}{)}{=}{\int}{n}{\rho}{(}{\lambda}{)}{A}{(}{a}{,}{\lambda}{)}{A}{(}{c}{,}{\lambda}{)}{d}{\lambda}{-}{\int}{n}{\rho}{(}{\lambda}{)}{A}{(}{a}{,}{\lambda}{)}{B}{(}{b}{,}{\lambda}{)}{d}{\lambda}
{=}{ \int}{d}{\lambda}{n}{\rho}{(}{\lambda}{A}{(}{a}{,}{\lambda}{)}{A}{(}{b}{,}{\lambda}{)}{[}{A}{(}{b}{,}{\lambda}{ A}{(}{c}{,}{\lambda}{)}{-}{1}{]}
[Since {{[}{A}{(}{b}{,}{\lambda}{]}}^{2}{=}{1} ]
\mid P(a,b) - P(a,c) \mid \le \int d\lambda {n}\mid \rho(\lambda) A(a,\lambda)A(b,\lambda)[A(b,\lambda)A(c,\lambda) - 1] \mid. Since \rho(\lambda) is always positive and A(a,λ)*A(b,λ)=±1 we have\mid P(a,b) - P(a,c) \mid \le \int d\lambda \rho(\lambda) (n) \mid [A(b,\lambda)A(c,\lambda) - 1] \mid, then since A(b,λ)*A(c,λ) - 1 is always equal to -2 or 0, its absolute value is always equal to 1 - A(b,λ)*A(c,λ) so we now have \mid P(a,b) - P(a,c) \mid \le \int d\lambda \rho(\lambda) {n} [1 - A(b,\lambda)A(c,\lambda)] or \mid P(a,b) - P(a,c) \mid \le \int d\lambda \rho(\lambda) {[}{n} {-}{ n} A(b,\lambda)A(c,\lambda){]}. We have, \int d\lambda \rho(\lambda) {n}[-A(b,\lambda)A(c,\lambda)] = P(b,c) and since \int d\lambda \rho(\lambda) = 1 this gives an inequality equivalent to the one Bell derives:

n + P(b,c) ≥ |P(a,b) - P(a,c)|
 
Last edited:
  • #51
I've just thought of a simpler proof: if we denote your expectation values for the sum of n trials as PA(a,b), PA(b,c), and PA(a,c), and Bell's expectation values for a single trial as PB(a,b), PB(b,c), and PB(a,c), then as long as there is no time-variation in the individual expectation values PB(a,b) etc. from one trial to the next, it should just be the case that

PA(a,b) = n*PB(a,b)
PA(b,c) = n*PB(b,c)
PA(a,c) = n*PB(a,c)

In this case we can start with Bell's inequality:

1 + PB(b,c) ≥ |PB(a,b) - PB(a,c)|

Since n is a positive integer, we can multiply both sides by n without changing the inequality:

n + n*PB(b,c) ≥ |n*PB(a,b) - n*PB(a,c)|

And by substitution this gives:

n + PA(b,c) ≥ |PA(a,b) - PA(a,c)|

Similarly if you wanted to label the results on each individual trial by ±(1/2) rather than ±1, then we would have the inequality you wrote in post #43:

(1/4)n + PA(b,c) ≥ |PA(a,b) - PA(a,c)|

But in any case, are you claiming it would be possible to violate these inequalities in a local realistic model? If so, why do you believe that?
 
  • #52
"Thirty years later John Stewart Bell responded with a paper which posited (paraphrased) that no physical theory of local hidden variables can ever reproduce all of the predictions of quantum mechanics (known as Bell's theorem)."

The above quotation is from the following Wikipedia link:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_locality
Bell in his paper has given an example of such a contradiction using the inequality in section IV,Contradiction:
[the paper may be obtained from the first link of posting 23]

The inequality used is:
1+P(a,b)>= Mod[P(a,b)-P(a,c)]
Incidentally Bell has considered average values of P(a,b) etc. I would like to refer to equation (19) where the average value of P(a,b) has been considered.Incidentally this average value pertains to some particular value,if one uses the mean value theorem.

It does not take into consideration the cumulative effect of a short time interval,specifically a minimum time needed for measurement.
[This is similar to what Jesse said in posting in 28 and I answered in posting 29 and the subsequent ones]
With the consideration of the cumulative effect of measurement time we have

n+P(a,b)>=Mod[P(a,b)-P(a,c)]

P(a,b) ,P(a,c) and P(b,c) should have the interpretation as I have expounded in postings 47 and 50 . "n" is some positive number greater than one.
Now the violation shown in the example Bell's paper does not exist.Rather it can be avoided.[one may assign the value 2 or 3 to n]. We have got a certain amount of flexibility in the application of the inequality.

[a and b are unit vectors,though I have not used bold letters for them]

[Incidentally results like P(a,b)=-a.b are quantum mechanical results which have been used test Bell's inequality which comes basically from commonsense intuition]
 
Last edited:
  • #53
Anamitra said:
With the consideration of the cumulative effect of measurement time we have

n+P(a,b)>=Mod[P(a,b)-P(a,c)]

P(a,b) ,P(a,c) and P(b,c) should have the interpretation as I have expounded in postings 47 and 50 . "n" is some positive number greater than one.
Now the violation shown in the example Bell's paper does not exist.Rather it can be avoided.[one may assign the value 2 or 3 to n]. We have got a certain amount of flexibility in the application of the inequality.
No, you don't get any increased flexibility, because changing the value of n also changes the values of P(a,b) and P(b,c) and P(a,c) (when they are defined as you define them, as expectation values for the sum of each result over n trials), in such a way as to make the inequality equally impossible to violate under local realism. As I said before if we denote your cumulative expectation values as PA(a,b), PA(b,c) and PA(a,c), while denoting Bell's single-trial expectation values as PB(a,b), PB(b,c) and PB(a,c), then we have:

PA(a,b) = n*PB(a,b)
PA(b,c) = n*PB(b,c)
PA(a,c) = n*PB(a,c)

This should make it obvious that if this local realism always gives values of PB(a,b), PB(b,c) and PB(a,c) that satisfy this inequality:

1 + PB(b,c) ≥ |PB(a,b) - PB(a,c)|

Then it must also always give values of PA(a,b), PA(b,c) and PA(a,c) that satisfy this one:

n + PA(b,c) ≥ |PA(a,b) - PA(a,c)|

...since the second inequality is simply obtained by multiplying both sides of the first by n, obtaining n + n*PB(b,c) ≥ |n*PB(a,b) - n*PB(a,c)|, and then performing the substitutions PA(a,b) = n*PB(a,b) etc.
 
  • #54
Let us have a look at the following result:

n + PA(b,c) ≥ |PA(a,b) - PA(a,c)|

If each value like n*P(a,b)<1 [n*P(a,c) and n*P(b,c)<1]even if "'n" is a suitable positive number larger than one[it may be 2,3, 5.9 etc], the testing of Bell's inequalities with Quantum Mechanical results like P(a,b)=-a.b will not produce any contradiction. You may consider the example in Bell's paper.
[The value of "n" definitely provides us a good amount of flexibility in the application of Bell's inequality,I mean the transformed one]
 
Last edited:
  • #55
Anamitra said:
Let us have a look at the following result:

n + PA(b,c) ≥ |PA(a,b) - PA(a,c)|

If each value like n*P(a,b)<1 [n*P(a,c) and n*P(b,c)<1]even if "'n" is a suitable positive number larger than one[it may be 2,3, 5.9 etc], the testing of Bell's inequalities with Quantum Mechanical results like P(a,b)=-a.b will not produce any contradiction. You may consider the example in Bell's paper.
If the absolute value of each of them is smaller than 1 while n ≥ 3, then the inequality will be satisfied. But the point is that the inequality cannot be violated in local realism, whereas QM does violate this inequality (i.e. it violates your altered inequality above just like it violates Bell's original inequality). To disprove Bell's theorem you would have to find a local realistic model that allows for the inequality to be violated (under the test conditions Bell outlined), but Bell proved this is impossible.
 
  • #56
You may consider the example in Bell's paper.
The inequality
n + PA(b,c) ≥ |PA(a,b) - PA(a,c)|
is not violated by Quantum Mechanics by the values considered[a.c=0,a.b=b.c=1/[sqrt(2)],that is,P(a.c)=0;P(a.b)=P(b.c)= -1/[sqrt(2)] ]

This applies to local or non-local conditions.
But the inequality
n + PA(b,c) ≥ |PA(a,b) - PA(a,c)|
gets violated by the choice of values considered above.

Incidentally P(a.b)=-a.b is a quantum mechanical result.

The effect of the hidden variables may be operative in the local or non local situation

The action of the hidden variable may be of a complicated nature. It may not depend on distance. It may depend on the nature of the signals received/emitted by the particles and not on the strength of the signals. Even if there is a dependence on the strength of the signals it may be argued that each particle has to take the full share of the signals emitted by the other. We are dealing with a closed system[isolated one] containing only two particles.
 
Last edited:
  • #57
Anamitra said:
You may consider the example in Bell's paper.
The inequality
n + PA(b,c) ≥ |PA(a,b) - PA(a,c)|
is not violated by Quantum Mechanics by the values considered[a.c=0,a.b=b.c=1/[sqrt(2)],that is,P(a.c)=0;P(a.b)=P(b.c)= -1/[sqrt(2)] ]

This applies to local or non-local conditions.
But the inequality
n + PA(b,c) ≥ |PA(a,b) - PA(a,c)|
gets violated by the choice of values considered above.

Incidentally P(a.b)=-a.b is a quantum mechanical result.

The effect of the hidden variables may be operative in the local or non local situation

The action of the hidden variable may be of a complicated nature. It may not depend on distance. It may depend on the nature of the signals received/emitted by the particles and not on the strength of the signals. Even if there is a dependence on the strength of the signals it may be argued that each particle has to take the full share of the signals emitted by the other. We are dealing with a closed system[isolated one] containing only two particles.

*sigh* You can't use the same values from the Bell paper in your re-derived inequality. If you pick a value for n, then you need to multiply each of the P(x,y) terms in the inequality by n to get the PA(x,y) terms you use in your new inequality. As JesseM showed, you are just doing elementary mathematical manipulations with the original Bell inequalities. You have not added any new content.
 
Last edited:
  • #58
Anamitra said:
You may consider the example in Bell's paper.
The inequality
n + PA(b,c) ≥ |PA(a,b) - PA(a,c)|
is not violated by Quantum Mechanics by the values considered[a.c=0,a.b=b.c=1/[sqrt(2)],that is,P(a.c)=0;P(a.b)=P(b.c)= -1/[sqrt(2)] ]
As SpectraCat said, the values in Bell's paper are the single-trial expectation values, i.e. there you have PB(a.b) = PB(b.c) = -1/[sqrt(2)]. These are different from the sum-over-cumulative-trials expectation values, which in this case would be PA(a.b) = PA(b.c) = -n/[sqrt(2)]
 
  • #59
JesseM said:
As SpectraCat said, the values in Bell's paper are the single-trial expectation values, i.e. there you have PB(a.b) = PB(b.c) = -1/[sqrt(2)]. These are different from the sum-over-cumulative-trials expectation values, which in this case would be PA(a.b) = PA(b.c) = -n/[sqrt(2)]

This is not a correct assertion. You simply cannot measure a single trial result. There may be one million trials in a measurement spanning across a short or an infinitesimally small interval of time.
The Quantum Mechanical Expectation[which may be obtained in a physical experiment] covers such a span of time which may include one million trials of the distribution function rho[lambda]

In any experiment we need a minimum time to get the correct measured value. Even a single click may incorporate a million trials

Quantum Mechanical expectation:

{P}_{QM}{(}{a}{,}{b}{)}{=}{-}{a}{.}{b}

{P}_{h}{(}{a}{,}{b}{)}{=}{\int}{n}{\rho}{(}{\lambda}{)}{A}{(}{a}{,}{\lambda}{)}{B}{(}{b}{,}{\lambda}{)}{d}{\lambda}{=}{-}{a}{.}{b}If one is to measure this result in an experiment, a single click might involve one million trials.
 
Last edited:
  • #60
Anamitra said:
This is not a correct assertion. You simply cannot measure a single trial result.
I wasn't measuring a single trial result when I gave PA(a.b) = PA(b.c) = -n/[sqrt(2)], I was talking about the expectation value for a sum of results over n trials, for example if I had n=4 trials my expectation value would be -4/[sqrt(2)], while if the actual trials gave results -1, -1, +1, -1 then my sum in this case would be -2.
Anamitra said:
There may be one million trials in a measurement spanning across a short or an infinitesimally small interval of time.
A "trial" is defined as a single recorded outcome, like a single "click" of the detector. It doesn't matter if at some hidden level unknown to us, the detector is really caused to click by a million brief interactions with a cloud of particles, it's still only a single trial if we only have one outcome. If you want the word "trial" to represent something else then this would once again change the meaning of P(a.b) and so forth, and there's no reason to expect the same inequality would be derived.
Anamitra said:
The Quantum Mechanical Expectation[which may be obtained in a physical experiment] covers such a span of time which may include one million trials of the distribution function rho[lambda]
That doesn't make much sense. What is a "trial of the distribution function" supposed to mean in physical terms? Physically the distribution function just tells you probability the hidden variables will take various values (each value of lambda represents a complete state of hidden variables), it's true these hidden variables could be rapidly changing during the measurement period, but in his more carefully worded paper La nouvelle cuisine he defined lambda to give the values of the hidden variables in at every point in space time in some complete cross-section of the past light cone of the region of spacetime where the measurement happened, like region "3" in the diagram at the top of this page. So in this case lambda isn't even meant to tell you the value of any hidden variables during the measurement period itself.
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 47 ·
2
Replies
47
Views
5K
  • · Replies 38 ·
2
Replies
38
Views
6K
  • · Replies 40 ·
2
Replies
40
Views
4K
Replies
18
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
5K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
3K
  • · Replies 75 ·
3
Replies
75
Views
6K