How can the equation E^2=(mc^2)^2+(pc)^2 be proven?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the equation E^2=(mc^2)^2+(pc)^2, exploring how to prove it. Participants engage with various aspects of the equation, including its derivation, implications, and the foundational principles that underlie it. The scope includes theoretical reasoning and mathematical proofs related to energy, mass, and momentum in the context of special relativity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants suggest using units where c=1 to simplify the equation to e^2=m^2+p^2 for easier manipulation.
  • One participant proposes that the proof depends on established postulates, such as E=mγ and p=mγv for massive particles, and mentions the need to consider limits for m=0.
  • Another participant emphasizes the importance of the invariant rest mass and discusses how the equation reflects the relationship between energy and momentum across different frames of reference.
  • There is a contention regarding the signs in the equation, with multiple participants pointing out discrepancies in earlier posts.
  • Some participants argue that m^2=E^2-p^2 is more fundamental than the expressions for E and p in terms of γ, m, and v.
  • Questions arise about what constitutes a "proof" and the assumptions that must be accepted for various derivations to hold.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the foundational aspects of the equation and the nature of proof. There is no consensus on a singular method of proof, and multiple competing viewpoints regarding the fundamental principles remain present throughout the discussion.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight that the validity of various proofs depends on the assumptions made and the definitions accepted, particularly regarding the treatment of mass and momentum in different contexts.

avcireis
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Hello everyone,

I understood the energy mass equation with the common box and photon example. But how do you prove E^2=(mc^2)^2.(pc)^2 ? Thanks for help.
 
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Welcome to PF!

You'll get better responses to your posts if you mark up the math properly using LaTeX. I've done that here for your equation: [itex]e^2=(mc^2)^2+(pc)^2[/itex]. To see how I did that, click on the
button under my post.

Let's use units where c=1. Then the equation is [itex]e^2=m^2+p^2[/itex], which is simpler to work with.

How to prove it depends on what you're taking as postulates, and also on what facts you've already established.

If you've already established [itex]e=m\gamma[/itex] and [itex]p=m\gamma v[/itex] for massive particles, then the proof just involves simple algebra, plus taking the appropriate limit to cover the m=0 case.

If you take the work-kinetic energy theorem as a postulate (which I've never been satisfied with), then here is a derivation: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?p=2416765

[Edit] Corrected the sign.
 
Last edited:
Did you mean this formula?

[tex]E^2 = \left( m c^2 \right)^2 + \left( p c \right)^2[/tex]

Note the plus sign. For a simple proof, consider what this looks like in the object's rest frame, where [itex]p = 0[/itex]:

[tex]E^2 = \left( m c^2 \right)^2[/tex]

which of course is the "energy mass equation" you refer to. Now the [itex]m[/itex] in this equation is an invariant; it's the object's rest mass. So if we transform to any other frame, we must still have the same value of [itex]m[/itex], even though [itex]E[/itex] changes. In a frame where the object is moving at velocity [itex]v[/itex], we have

[tex]E = \gamma m c^2[/tex]

where [itex]\gamma = 1 / \sqrt{1 - v^2 / c^2}[/itex]. If we note that the momentum [itex]p[/itex] is given by

[tex]p = \gamma m v[/tex]

we can see that

[tex]E^2 - \left( p c \right)^2 = \gamma^2 \left( m c^2 \right)^2 - \gamma^2 \left( m v c \right)^2 = \gamma^2 \left( m c^2 \right)^2 \left( 1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2} \right) = \left( m c^2 \right)^2[/tex]

which rearranges to the general formula I gave at the start of this post. In other words, the formula just expresses how the invariance of rest mass is maintained, by the energy and momentum changing in concert as you change frames.
 
bcrowell said:
Welcome to PF!

You'll get better responses to your posts if you mark up the math properly using LaTeX. I've done that here for your equation: [itex]e^2=(mc^2)^2-(pc)^2[/itex]. To see how I did that, click on the ... button under my post.

Let's use units where c=1. Then the equation is [itex]e^2=m^2-p^2[/itex], which is simpler to work with.

How to prove it depends on what you're taking as postulates, and also on what facts you've already established.

If you've already established [itex]e=m\gamma[/itex] and [itex]p=m\gamma v[/itex] for massive particles, then the proof just involves simple algebra, plus taking the appropriate limit to cover the m=0 case.

If you take the work-kinetic energy theorem as a postulate (which I've never been satisfied with), then here is a derivation: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?p=2416765

You've got your signs mixed up!
 
elfmotat said:
You've got your signs mixed up!

Thanks!

Re PeterDonis's #3, this works if you already believe in [itex]E=m\gamma[/itex] and [itex]p=m\gamma c[/itex], but that does lead to the question of how to prove those things, and it doesn't cover m=0 unless you explicitly appeal to taking the limit. Really what's going on here is that [itex]m^2=E^2-p^2[/itex] is more fundamental than [itex]E=m\gamma[/itex] and [itex]p=m\gamma c[/itex].
 
bcrowell said:
Re PeterDonis's #3, this works if you already believe in [itex]E=m\gamma[/itex] and [itex]p=m\gamma c[/itex], but that does lead to the question of how to prove those things

Yes, that's true. As you say, it depends on what you think is more "fundamental".

bcrowell said:
and it doesn't cover m=0 unless you explicitly appeal to taking the limit.

Yes, although if you accept [itex]E = pc[/itex] for light, then that already gives you the m = 0 version. But again, that depends on what you think is fundamental.

bcrowell said:
Really what's going on here is that [itex]m^2=E^2-p^2[/itex] is more fundamental than [itex]E=m\gamma[/itex] and [itex]p=m\gamma c[/itex].

I agree, this is a better way to look at it.
 
Found these two videos explained things very well (and easy to understand):



 
Last edited by a moderator:
MacedonHero said:
Found these two videos explained things very well (and easy to understand):





I know what is [itex]E=mc^2[/itex] is. I was asking how to prove [itex]E^2=(mc^2)^2+(pc)^2[/itex].
 
Last edited by a moderator:
avcireis said:
I was asking how to prove [itex]E^2=(mc^2)^2+(pc)^2[/itex].

Well, have you read the posts we've made giving possible proofs? Do you have questions about them? Issues with them?

Also, as bcrowell pointed out, what counts as a "proof" depends on what you accept as already proven. If you accept [itex]E^2 - \left( p c \right)^2 = \left( m c^2 \right)^2[/itex] as already proven, then the proof of [itex]E^2=(mc^2)^2+(pc)^2[/itex] is a one-liner. If you accept the formulas for [itex]E[/itex] and [itex]p[/itex] in terms of [itex]\gamma[/itex], [itex]m[/itex], and [itex]v[/itex] that I gave, the proof isn't much longer. Where do you want the proof to start?
 

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