How can the Taylor series help prove the limit of cosine?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the limit of the cosine function as it approaches zero, specifically using the Taylor series expansion. The original poster attempts to demonstrate that \(\cos(x) = 1 - \frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^4)\) as \(x\) approaches zero.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the use of the Taylor series and the remainder theorem, questioning the validity of the original poster's approach. Some suggest using L'Hôpital's rule as an alternative method to tackle the limit.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of different methods to prove the limit, with some participants providing guidance on using L'Hôpital's rule and discussing the implications of limit properties. The original poster reflects on their mistakes and seeks clarification on the application of limit theorems.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the implications of limits involving infinity and the conditions under which limit theorems apply, indicating a need for clarity on these concepts in the context of the problem.

Damidami
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I have to prove that
[tex]\cos(x) = 1 - \frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^4)[/tex] [tex](x \to 0)[/tex]

My ugly attempt:
[tex]\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(x) - 1 + \frac{x^2}{2}}{x^4}[/tex]

[tex]\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(x) - 1}{x^4} + \frac{1}{2x^2}[/tex]

[tex]\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sin(x)}{4x^3} + \frac{1}{2x^2}[/tex]

[tex]\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{1}{4x^2} + \frac{1}{2x^2}[/tex]

[tex]\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{1}{4x^2} + \frac{2}{4x^2} = \frac{3}{4x^2} = \infty[/tex] (It should be a finite number)

Something does not work here, any help? Thanks!
 
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Have you looked at the Taylor series with remainder theorem?
 
LCKurtz said:
Have you looked at the Taylor series with remainder theorem?

Hi LCKurtz,
I was searching an alternative (and elementary) way to prove it (otherwise there is nothing to prove, right?)

My thought was: It should work using L'Hopital some finite numer of times, doesn't it? I don't know what am I doing wrong.

Thanks.
 
Damidami said:
Hi LCKurtz,
I was searching an alternative (and elementary) way to prove it (otherwise there is nothing to prove, right?)

My thought was: It should work using L'Hopital some finite numer of times, doesn't it? I don't know what am I doing wrong.

Thanks.

Yes, you can do it that way:

[tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{\cos(x)-1+\frac{x^2}{2}}{x^4}<br /> =\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{-\sin(x)+x}{4x^3}[/tex]

and keep going as long as you have 0/0 form. You get 1/24 eventually.
 
LCKurtz said:
Yes, you can do it that way:

[tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{\cos(x)-1+\frac{x^2}{2}}{x^4}<br /> =\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{-\sin(x)+x}{4x^3}[/tex]

and keep going as long as you have 0/0 form. You get 1/24 eventually.

You are completely right! Thanks!

I think my mistake was in the second step:

[tex]\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(x) - 1}{x^4} + \frac{1}{2x^2}[/tex]

The limit of a sum is the sum of the limit only of both limits exists right? But the second one clearly is [tex]+\infty[/tex] and that isn't a real number, so that theorem does not apply, am I right now?

Thanks!
 

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