How do different Lagrangians affect the equations of motion?

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Euler-Lagrangian Equations

Let [tex]L=L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] be a Lagrangian of a mechanical system, where [tex]q_i(t)[/tex] and [tex]\dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] are the short hand notations for [tex]q_1(t), q_2(t), . . . q_N(t)[/tex] and [tex]\dot{q}_1(t), \dot{q}_2(t), . . . \dot{q}_N(t)[/tex], respectively.

I need to prove that if [tex]L ' =L+\frac{d \phi}{dt}[/tex], then [tex]L=L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] and [tex]L ' =L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] give the same equations of motion (Euler-Lagrangian equations).

The Euler-Lagrangian equations is [tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} - \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i }= 0[/tex]

I really have no idea where to begin. Any suggestions would be much appreciated.
 
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More generally, the equations of motions are the same up to an added time dependent function in the lagrangian. The proof is as direct as can be... just write the E-L equations for L and L' (and perform the derivatives on L').
 
[tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} - \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i }= 0[/tex]

[tex]L ' =L+\frac{d \phi}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} + \frac{\partial }{\partial x_i} \frac{d \phi }{dt}- \frac{d}{dt} \left( \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i } + \frac{\partial }{\partial \dot{x}_i } \frac{d \phi }{dt} \right)= 0[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial }{\partial \dot{x}_i } \frac{d \phi }{dt} = 0[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} - \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i }= 0[/tex]

something like that?
 
I am told that [tex]\frac{d \phi }{dt}[/tex] is a "total time derivative"
 
As i know it, the trick is that [itex]\phi=\phi\left(t,q^{i}\right)[/itex].

Therefore

[tex]\frac{d\phi}{dt} =\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}+\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial q^{i}} \dot{q}^{i}[/tex].

Daniel.
 
Dexter is probably right on this, because I checked the definition of "total time derivative" on wiki and it says "a derivative which takes indirect dependencies into account"*

This property of the equ. of motion you're trying to prove is mentioned in the "Landau & Lif****z" on mechanics in the first few pages of the book.*http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Total_time_derivative
 
frankly, i need some real help. My class has an awful professor and using a very mathematical book that I can't seem to grasp. Before I try to attack this problem, could someone explain to me what exactly the Euler-Lagrangian does? What does it solve for?

Also the notation [tex]L ' =L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex]

Why is there a comma between q and q dot? What does the comma symbolize?

Also, could someone please explain [tex]\delta[/tex] notation?

What does it mean when [tex]\frac{dJ}{d \alpha} d \alpha = \delta J[/tex] ?

My whole class seems confused as to what the lectures are about, so I have taken it upon myself to learn the material by myself.

In class today, we were told that [tex]\phi=\phi\left(q_i,\dot{q}_i (t),t\right)[/tex]

dextercioby said:
As i know it, the trick is that [itex]\phi=\phi\left(t,q^{i}\right)[/itex].

Therefore

[tex]\frac{d\phi}{dt} =\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}+\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial q^{i}} \dot{q}^{i}[/tex].

Daniel.

What is the significance of this statement dextercioby?

I am sorry for my ignorance, but I am willing to learn.
 
The Euler-Lagrange equations are the equations of motion for a system which motion is described by the generalized coordinates [itex]q_i[/itex]. They are, so to say, for generalized coordinates what the Newtonian equations are for cartesian coordinates.

[itex]L(q_i(t), \dot q_i(t) )[/itex] simply means that L ist a function of both q_i and the total time-derivatives [itex]\dot q_i[/itex]- of generalized velocities, so to say.

edit: The Euler-Lagrangian equations can be derived from the "priciple of least action", which you can take as an axiom instead of Newton's equations. From the formulas I think you did this in your course. For an introduction what it's all about I suggest Feynman's Lectures on physics, Volume 2, Chapter 19, after this f.e. Goldstein for a more detailed explanation.
 
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what about [tex]\delta[/tex] notation? and what dextercioby wrote?
 
If [itex]\Phi(q_i (t), \dot q_i(t),t )[/itex] the total time derivative becomes
[itex]\frac{d}{dt} \Phi = \sum \limits_i \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial q_i} \dot q_i + \sum \limits_i \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial \dot q_i} \ddot q_i + \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial t}[/itex] (dexter didn't write the sum out but used Einstein convention - sum is taken over i, since i is double).
[itex]\delta[/itex] means the "variation".

For example, [itex]\delta \int \limits L(q_i, \dot q_i, t) dt =0[/itex] means that the integral doesn't change when you change the "pathfunction" q_i over which is integrated a little (just as a function has a maximum or minimum and doesn't change "nearby" when the derivative is zero). This is the "Principle of least action", from which the Euler-Lagrange-equations can be derived.
 
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UrbanXrisis said:
[tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} - \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i }= 0[/tex]

[tex]L ' =L+\frac{d \phi}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} + \frac{\partial }{\partial x_i} \frac{d \phi }{dt}- \frac{d}{dt} \left( \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i } + \frac{\partial }{\partial \dot{x}_i } \frac{d \phi }{dt} \right)= 0[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial }{\partial \dot{x}_i } \frac{d \phi }{dt} = 0[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} - \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i }= 0[/tex]

something like that?

was what I did here okay?
 
Hi...

I don't understand where you got [tex]\left( \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i } + \frac{\partial }{\partial \dot{x}_i } \frac{d \phi }{dt} \right)= 0[/tex]. It is supposed to be equal to L right? How is it equal to L?
 
sorry, I just meant
[tex]\left( \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i } + \frac{\partial }{\partial \dot{x}_i } \frac{d \phi }{dt} \right)[/tex],
not the equal to zero part.
 
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