How Do I Evaluate the Integral \(\int(z^2+1)^2dz\) Over a Cycloid Path?

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SUMMARY

The integral \(\int(z^2+1)^2dz\) is evaluated over a cycloid path defined by the parametric equations \(x=a(\theta-\sin\theta)\) and \(y=a(1-\cos\theta)\) for \(\theta\) ranging from \(0\) to \(2\pi\). The discussion confirms that the contour is closed, allowing the application of Cauchy's Theorem, which states that if the function is analytic and has no singular points, the integral evaluates to zero. The integral can also be expressed in terms of a definite integral along the path, specifically \(\int_{C} f(z)\ dz = \int_{0}^{2\pi a} (1+x^{2})^{2}\ dx\).

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  • Familiarity with parametric equations of curves, specifically cycloids
  • Knowledge of integration techniques in complex variables
  • Ability to manipulate complex functions and their derivatives
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$$\int(z^2+1)^2dz$$
Evaluate this over the cycloid$$x=a(\theta-sin\theta)$$ and $$y=a(1-cos\theta)$$ for $$\theta =0$$ to $$\theta = 2\pi$$

Am I on the right track, or do I need to approach this a different way?

for $$z^2$$ we have $$(x+iy)^2$$, so $$x^2-y^2 + i2xy$$ for the real part.

$$a^2(\theta-sin\theta)-a^2(1-cos\theta)^2$$
$$a^2[\theta^2-1 -2sin\theta + sin^2\theta -1 + 2cos\theta - \cos^2\theta ]$$

Aside from taking $$-cos^2\theta = sin^2\theta -1$$ and consolidating the $$sin^2\theta$$

Not sure what else I can do to simplify this.

Thanks for any help!
 
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Stumped said:
$$\int(z^2+1)^2dz$$
Evaluate this over the cycloid$$x=a(\theta-sin\theta)$$ and $$y=a(1-cos\theta)$$ for $$\theta =0$$ to $$\theta = 2\pi$$

Am I on the right track, or do I need to approach this a different way?

for $$z^2$$ we have $$(x+iy)^2$$, so $$x^2-y^2 + i2xy$$ for the real part.

$$a^2(\theta-sin\theta)-a^2(1-cos\theta)^2$$
$$a^2[\theta^2-1 -2sin\theta + sin^2\theta -1 + 2cos\theta - \cos^2\theta ]$$

Aside from taking $$-cos^2\theta = sin^2\theta -1$$ and consolidating the $$sin^2\theta$$

Not sure what else I can do to simplify this.

Thanks for any help!

Is your contour even closed?
 
Prove It said:
Is your contour even closed?

Seems that it is since it will be one rotation of the cycloid, since it is parameterized by $$0 \leq\theta \leq 2\pi$$
 
If the contour is closed and your function doesn't have any singular points (which this doesn't) then the integral is equal to 0 by Cauchy's Theorem.

However I am not so sure that this is closed... See here...
 
If this is not closed, continue w/ my approach?
 
Stumped said:
If this is not closed, continue w/ my approach?

My understanding is that all complex integration requires having a closed contour, so if this is what you have been given I would assume that it is closed. I'd advise you to check with your lecturer to be sure.
 
Stumped said:
$$\int(z^2+1)^2dz$$
Evaluate this over the cycloid$$x=a(\theta-sin\theta)$$ and $$y=a(1-cos\theta)$$ for $$\theta =0$$ to $$\theta = 2\pi$$

Am I on the right track, or do I need to approach this a different way?

for $$z^2$$ we have $$(x+iy)^2$$, so $$x^2-y^2 + i2xy$$ for the real part.

$$a^2(\theta-sin\theta)-a^2(1-cos\theta)^2$$
$$a^2[\theta^2-1 -2sin\theta + sin^2\theta -1 + 2cos\theta - \cos^2\theta ]$$

Aside from taking $$-cos^2\theta = sin^2\theta -1$$ and consolidating the $$sin^2\theta$$

Not sure what else I can do to simplify this.

Thanks for any help!

The fact that f(z) is analytic means that its integral along a path depends only from the starting and ending points. Here f(z) is anayltic, so that the integral is...

$\displaystyle \int_{C} f(z)\ d z = \int_{0}^{2\ \pi\ a} (1+x^{2})^{2}\ dx\ (1)$

The details are left to You...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
Stumped said:
$$\int(z^2+1)^2dz$$
Evaluate this over the cycloid$$x=a(\theta-sin\theta)$$ and $$y=a(1-cos\theta)$$ for $$\theta =0$$ to $$\theta = 2\pi$$

Am I on the right track, or do I need to approach this a different way?

for $$z^2$$ we have $$(x+iy)^2$$, so $$x^2-y^2 + i2xy$$ for the real part.

$$a^2(\theta-sin\theta)-a^2(1-cos\theta)^2$$
$$a^2[\theta^2-1 -2sin\theta + sin^2\theta -1 + 2cos\theta - \cos^2\theta ]$$

Aside from taking $$-cos^2\theta = sin^2\theta -1$$ and consolidating the $$sin^2\theta$$

Not sure what else I can do to simplify this.

Thanks for any help!

Hint : the function you are integrating has an anti-derivative in $\mathbb{C}$.
 

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