How do I solve for x in cotx=2 by using a scientific calculator?

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Homework Statement



How do I solve for x in cotx=2 by using a scientific calculator?
What do I have to enter?

Homework Equations



N/A

The Attempt at a Solution



I know that I can enter tan^-1 (1/2) to find x, but is there another way to do it on a calculator?
 
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There is another way:

The arccotangent of x is equal to one half pi minus the arctangent of x. The arccotangent of x only equals the arctangent of 1/x if x is greater than zero.

In short...

[tex]arccot(x)=\frac{\pi}{2}-arctan(x)[/tex]

[tex]arccot(x)=arctan(\frac{1}{x}), x>0[/tex]

I don't know why this is true, my calculus book tells me so.
 
Char. Limit said:
There is another way:

The arccotangent of x is equal to one half pi minus the arctangent of x. The arccotangent of x only equals the arctangent of 1/x if x is greater than zero.

In short...

[tex]arccot(x)=\frac{\pi}{2}-arctan(x)[/tex]

[tex]arccot(x)=arctan(\frac{1}{x}), x>0[/tex]

I don't know why this is true, my calculus book tells me so.

Draw a right triangle with an angle [itex]\theta[/itex] and let the opposite side length be x and the adjacent side be 1 such that [itex]tan\theta=x[/itex]. Now, [itex]\theta=arctan(x)[/itex] and if we find the other angle in the triangle in terms of [itex]\theta[/itex], by sum of angles in a triangle, it is [itex]\pi/2 -\theta[/itex], so [itex]tan(\pi/2-\theta)=1/x[/itex] thus [itex]arccot(x)=\pi/2-\theta=\pi/2-arctan(x)[/itex].

You can prove the second result by a similar method.

@ the OP: you don't need an [itex]cot^{-1}[/itex] function on your calculator since it's very simple to take the [itex]tan^{-1}[/itex] of the reciprocal.
 
Thanks for the proof.
 
Other proofs that arccot(x) = [itex]\pi[/tex]/2 - arctan(x) and arccot(x) = arctan(1/x):<br /> <br /> arccot(x) = [itex]\pi[/tex]/2 - arctan(x)<br /> <br /> Let x = tan(θ) = cot([itex]\pi[/itex]/2 - θ) (a trig identity)<br /> x = cot([itex]\pi[/itex]/2 - θ)<br /> arccot(x) = [itex]\pi[/itex]/2 - θ<br /> tan(θ) = x<br /> θ = arctan(x)<br /> arccot(x) = [itex]\pi[/itex]/2 - arctan(x)<br /> <br /> <br /> arccot(x) = arctan(1/x)<br /> <br /> Let θ = arccot(x)<br /> cot(θ) = x<br /> 1/cot(θ) = tan(θ) = 1/x<br /> θ = arctan(1/x)<br /> arccot(x) = arctan(1/x)[/itex][/itex]
 
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Well the trig identity was derived from the properties of a right-triangle so your proof hasn't really changed much, other than giving someone the opportunity to realize it can be done that way too.

I'm curious as to why [tex]arccot(x)=arctan(\frac{1}{x}), x>0[/tex] as char.limit has posted. Why isn't this true for all non-zero x?
 
Mentallic said:
Well the trig identity was derived from the properties of a right-triangle so your proof hasn't really changed much, other than giving someone the opportunity to realize it can be done that way too.

I'm curious as to why [tex]arccot(x)=arctan(\frac{1}{x}), x>0[/tex] as char.limit has posted. Why isn't this true for all non-zero x?

arctan and arccot are defined with different angular ranges. Look it up and draw a graph. They only overlap for x>0 or resulting angle between 0 and pi/2.
 
Thanks, Dick. I didn't quite know myself.
 
Sorry I didn't quit understand what "angular ranges" meant.
I've drawn a graph for both:

[tex]cot^{-1}x=\pi/2-tan^{-1}x[/tex]
[tex]cot^{-1}x=tan^{-1}(1/x)[/tex]

and it seems as though the first is only true for x>0 while the second is true for all x.

Please elaborate so we can settle this.
 
Well, I believe that invtrig functions are only defined for certain angles. For example, I'm pretty sure that arcsin(x) is only defined from -pi/2 to pi/2 on the y axis. Thus, the angular range of arcsin(x) is [-pi/2,pi/2], but don't quote me on that.

Arctangent I don't know about.