How Do Maxwell's Equations Account for Magnetic Monopoles?

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on the implications of Maxwell's equations in the context of magnetic monopoles. It confirms that the solution for Gauss' law for a magnetic monopole is given by the equation \Phi_B = \oint B \cdot dA = \mu_0 q_b, establishing the relationship between electric and magnetic charges. The participants debate the correct formulation of Faraday's law and the Ampere-Maxwell law for magnetic monopoles, concluding that the induced electromotive force (emf) should incorporate a negative sign due to Lenz's law, resulting in \epsilon_e = -\frac{I_b}{\epsilon_0 c^2} for Faraday's law.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Maxwell's equations
  • Familiarity with Gauss' law and its applications
  • Knowledge of electromagnetic induction and Lenz's law
  • Basic concepts of magnetic monopoles
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  • Study the implications of magnetic monopoles in quantum electrodynamics (QED)
  • Explore the derivation and applications of Gauss' law for magnetic fields
  • Learn about the role of Lenz's law in electromagnetic systems
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Physicists, electrical engineers, and students of electromagnetism seeking to deepen their understanding of magnetic monopoles and their relationship with Maxwell's equations.

Orion1
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What is the solution in Gauss' law for a magnetic monopole based upon Maxwell's equations?

Maxwell's equations:
\Phi_E = \oint E \cdot dA = \frac{q_e}{\epsilon_0}

\Phi_B = \oint B \cdot dA = 0

\epsilon_e = \oint E \cdot ds = - \frac{d \Phi_B}{dt}

\epsilon_b = \oint B \cdot ds = \mu_0 \left(I_c + \epsilon_0 \frac{d \Phi_E}{dt} \right)

Gauss' magnetic monopole:
\frac{\Phi_E}{\Phi_B} = c^2 \; \; \; q_b = q_e
\Phi_B = \oint B \cdot dA = \frac{\Phi_E}{c^2} = \mu_0 q_b
\boxed{\Phi_B = \oint B \cdot dA = \mu_0 q_b}

Is this solution correct?

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Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magnetic_monopole
http://www.physics.nmt.edu/~raymond/classes/ph13xbook/node172.html
 
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Your last equation is correct, but you don't need q_b=q_e for it to hold.
q_b and q_e are independent unless you get into Dirac's QED argument.
 


What is the solution for Faraday's law for the EMF generated by a magnetic monopole current?

Faraday magnetic monopole:
\epsilon_e = \oint E \cdot ds = \frac{I_b}{\epsilon_0 c^2}

Ampere-Maxwell magnetic monopole:
\epsilon_e = \oint E \cdot ds = \frac{1}{c^2} \left( \frac{I_b}{\epsilon_0} - \frac{d \Phi_B}{dt} \right)

The negative sign was placed here because of Lenz's law:
Lenz's Law said:
The polarity of the induced emf is such that it tends to produce a current that will create a magnetic flux to oppose the change in magnetic flux through the loop

Are these solutions correct?

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I think the I_b should be -I_b.
 
I think the I_b should be -I_b.


That criteria should hold for both a Faraday and a Ampere-Maxwell magnetic monopole, correct?

Faraday magnetic monopole:
\epsilon_e = \oint E \cdot ds = - \frac{I_b}{\epsilon_0 c^2}

Ampere-Maxwell magnetic monopole:
\epsilon_e = \oint E \cdot ds = \frac{1}{c^2} \left( - \frac{I_b}{\epsilon_0} - \frac{d \Phi_B}{dt} \right) = - \frac{1}{c^2} \left( \frac{I_b}{\epsilon_0} + \frac{d \Phi_B}{dt} \right)

Ampere-Maxwell magnetic monopole:
\epsilon_e = \oint E \cdot ds = - \frac{1}{c^2} \left( \frac{I_b}{\epsilon_0} + \frac{d \Phi_B}{dt} \right)

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