How Do You Convert d3p to a Function of Frequency Nu in Spherical Coordinates?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on converting the volume element d3p into a function of frequency ν in spherical coordinates, specifically under the assumption of spherical symmetry. The key equations involved are n(ν) = 1/(e^(hν/kT) - 1) and ε = (2/h³)∫ hν · n(ν)d³p. The conversion process requires understanding the relationship between momentum p and frequency ν, given by p = hν/c, and the substitution of d³p with 4πp²dp. The final integral simplifies to ε = (8π/hc)∫ (ν³/(e^(hν/kT) - 1)) dν, although the original poster expressed uncertainty about their approach.

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Homework Statement



Write the volume element of d3p as a function of "nu". Assume spherical symmetry in doing this change of variables so write d3p = 4\pip2dp.

Homework Equations



n(\nu)=\frac{1}{e^{\frac{h \nu}{kT}} -1}

\epsilon=\frac{2}{h^3}\int h \nu \cdot n(\nu)d^3p

The Attempt at a Solution



I have zero idea of where to even start with this. As stupid as this is, I don't even understand "d3p = 4\pip2dp" or what the d3p even is. I don't think I've ever come across an integral that has used this type of notation before.

Any help to even get me started would be appreciated. :redface:
 
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The p in the equation above is simply the momentum of photons. There is a relationship between momentum and frequency for photons:

p = \frac{h\nu}{c}

With this you can figure out p^2 ( simply square it) and a relationship between dp and dv. With both of these pieces of information you should be able to replace d3p with an expression that is entirely in terms of dv , v and constants. Your new integration range will simply be over all of the frequencies so from 0 to infinity.
 
shreepy said:
The p in the equation above is simply the momentum of photons. There is a relationship between momentum and frequency for photons:

p = \frac{h\nu}{c}

With this you can figure out p^2 ( simply square it) and a relationship between dp and dv. With both of these pieces of information you should be able to replace d3p with an expression that is entirely in terms of dv , v and constants. Your new integration range will simply be over all of the frequencies so from 0 to infinity.

Ah got it. That helps out a ton. Thank you.

I couldn't figure out what that d^3p term meant.
 
So I am pretty sure I stumbled through this and got it mostly right, but I would I really like to understand this for future problems. Here is what I did...at least from what I remember. I already turned in my assignment a like I said...I stumbled through it.

n(\nu)=\frac{1}{e^{\frac{h \nu}{kT}} -1}

\epsilon=\frac{2}{h^3}\int h \nu \cdot n(\nu)d^3p

Combining the two.

\epsilon=\frac{2}{h^3}\int h \nu \cdot \frac{1}{e^{\frac{h \nu}{kT}} -1} d^3p

Part 1 I don't get.

d3p = 4Π2dp Where does this change occur? i.e. how would one know to do this?

Using that and subbing into my integral so far.

\epsilon=\frac{2}{h^3}\int h \nu \cdot \frac{1}{e^{\frac{h \nu}{kT}} -1} 4\pi p^2 dp

Here is where I probably messed up as I don't think I ever actually learned how to do this. My answer did match another integral in book. So that's a plus. :smile:

p=\frac{h\nu}{c}

Using my masterful, and most likely wrong subbing skills I come up with this.

p=\frac{h\nu}{c}

dp=\frac{h}{c}d\nu

\frac{c}{h}dp=d\nu

Then substitute again...

\epsilon=\frac{2}{h^3}\int h \nu \cdot \frac{1}{e^{\frac{h \nu}{kT}} -1} 4\pi \left(\frac{h \nu}{c}\right)^2 \frac{c}{h} d\nu

This eventually simplifies to...

\frac{8\pi}{hc}\int \frac{\nu^3}{e^{\frac{h \nu}{kT}} -1} d\nu


Now...I am quite certain this isn't right. I really had no idea what to do here so I just tried to make it match the final integral I found in my text using u-sub type rules. I don't think I've ever had to find relationships between dp and dv or any other sort of integral. So you can see my confusion.

Any pointers or tips would be appreciated. I tried searching google for videos/lectures on this subject but couldn't find anything.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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