How Do You Normalize a Wave Function with Given Boundaries?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the normalization of a wave function in quantum mechanics, specifically focusing on the function \(\Psi(x) = A\cos{\frac{2\pi{x}}{L}}\) defined within specific boundaries and zero elsewhere.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand how the given boundaries affect the normalization process, particularly questioning whether these boundaries replace the infinities in the normalization integral.

Discussion Status

Participants are engaging with the original poster's question, clarifying that only the region between the specified boundaries contributes to the normalization integral. There is an indication of productive dialogue, but no consensus has been reached yet.

Contextual Notes

The problem is framed within the context of quantum mechanics, and the boundaries provided are crucial for the normalization process. The discussion highlights the importance of understanding how these boundaries influence the integral used for normalization.

darkfall13
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[SOLVED] Normalization of wave functions

Mainly my question is that with the normalization of a wave function in quantum mechanics we use [tex]\int_\infty^\infty |\Psi(x,t)|^2 dx = 1[/tex] and we can solve for a constant we may have been given in the problem.

Homework Statement



Determine normalization constant:

[tex]\Psi(x) = A\cos{\frac{2\pi{x}}{L}}[/tex] for [tex]\frac{-L}{4} \leq x \leq \frac{L}{4}[/tex] and [tex]\Psi = 0[/tex] elsewhere

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I'm wondering if I'm given those boundaries because we can replace the infinities in the normal equation with these boundaries or would they be used for something else? Thank you!
 
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darkfall13 said:
I'm wondering if I'm given those boundaries because we can replace the infinities in the normal equation with these boundaries or would they be used for something else? Thank you!

Outside those boundaries, the value of [tex]\Psi(x)[/tex] is 0, as is stated in your post.

So, only the part between -L/4 and L/4 will contribute to the integral.
 
Ah ok thanks!
 
Be sure to mark down this thread as SOLVED once you've gotten the answer.
 

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