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I understand time dilation due to speed, but am confused on why time dilates depending on the distance from a mass. Help?
You can calculate this effect directly from the Schwarzschild metrics; Google will find many explanations including some in threads here.I understand time dilation due to speed, but am confused on why time dilates depending on the distance from a mass. Help?
I saw you marked this as intermediate however based on the question I thought you may be looking for a simple association for time dilation, mass and distance. That answer is, your distance to a mass is directly related to the strength you'd experience from it's gravitational field; ergo time dilation is related to the strength of that gravitational field. I hope this helped.I understand time dilation due to speed, but am confused on why time dilates depending on the distance from a mass. Help?
This is wrong. Gravitational time dilation is related to the gravitational potential, not to the field.I saw you marked this as intermediate however based on the question I thought you may be looking for a simple association for time dilation, mass and distance. That answer is, your distance to a mass is directly related to the strength you'd experience from it's gravitational field; ergo time dilation is related to the strength of that gravitational field. I hope this helped.
Google is your friend. I went for "clock in a centrifuge" and found http://www.sciforums.com/threads/atomic-clock-in-a-centrifuge.114225/I have seen many experiments proving gravitational time dilation. Some even with only a few feet difference between their heights above sea level. But, have yet to see one proving it is gravitational potential versus the field.
What you are up against is the clock postulate, which says that acceleration does not cause any additional time dilation.
This has been tested to as high as 10^18g. Usually it is done with radioisotopes of known half-lives on high speed centrifuges. As James R has noted, the time dilation always comes out to be equal to that caused by the tangential velocity. This is easily verified by varying the length of the centrifuge radius and its speed. This way you can get a number of different combinations of tangential velocity and g-force.
have yet to see one proving it is gravitational potential versus the field.
That's what the Pound-Rebka experiment does. You send a signal from one height to another. The signal is Doppler-shifted by either climbing against, or falling with the gravity field. In other words, the amount of Doppler-shift is a result of the change in gravitational potential between the two heights. The shift is exactly equal to the gravitational time dilation predicted by GR. Put another way, the quantitative results from real life experiments are consistent with gravitational time dilation being due to gravitational potential, but can't be made consistent with it being due to difference in local field strength.@Orodruin I understand that our theory has it based on gravitational potential as you say, but I was wondering if there have been any experiments to test this versus it being based on the gravitational field.
I have seen many experiments proving gravitational time dilation. Some even with only a few feet difference between their heights above sea level. But, have yet to see one proving it is gravitational potential versus the field.
Most experiments actually suggest that the time dilation factor is ##1 - M/r##, or in conventional Newtonian terms ##1 - GM/rc^2##, so the fractional time dilation between two locations for most purposes is simply the difference in ##-GM/rc^2## at those locations. Given the smallness of ##-GM/rc^2## in normal cases such as the solar system, this is consistent with the General Relativity theoretical prediction of ##\sqrt{1- 2M / r}##. Measurements of the perihelion precession of Mercury (and other planets) confirm that the square root form is more accurate, but this is a very small difference.Yes, you have. All of the experimental data show that the time dilation factor is ##\sqrt{1 - 2M / r}##. That means it depends on the gravitational potential. If it depended on the field, the dependence on ##r## would be different.
Most experiments actually suggest that the time dilation factor is ##1 - M/r##, or in conventional Newtonian terms 1−GM/rc21−GM/rc21 - GM/rc^2, so the fractional time dilation between two locations for most purposes is simply the difference in ##-GM/rc^2## at those locations.
This was true of the original Pound-Rebka experiment and similar ones, yes. However, I don't think it's true of GPS, or of the experiment described in this paper:
https://journals.aps.org/prl/abstract/10.1103/PhysRevLett.45.2081
I think there is enough altitude difference in those cases that the simple approximation ##1 - M/r## no longer quite holds.
So even in that case, you would have to measure the fractional difference in the time rate to a few parts in ##10^{10}## to detect the difference
you would need to measure the time rate itself to a few parts in ##10^{19}## (a few hundredths of a second in the age of the universe) to detect the difference by that means.
I understand time dilation due to speed, but am confused on why time dilates depending on the distance from a mass. Help?
I don't understand where this number is coming from.
Sorry if I'm not clear, but I was saying that the value of the DIFFERENCE between clock rates (or to put it another way the difference between two ##GM/rc^2## values) has to be measured to a few parts in ##10^{10}## so the overall time rates have to be measured to a few parts in ##10^{19}##.Yes, and GPS time measurements are that accurate.
The difference between using ##\sqrt{1- \frac{2GM}{c^2 r}}## and using the approximation ##\frac{GM}{c^2 r}## is on the order of ##\frac{GM}{c^2 r})^2##, which is of the order of ##10^{-19}##.
I was saying that the value of the DIFFERENCE between clock rates (or to put it another way the difference between two ##GM/rc^2## values) has to be measured to a few parts in ##10^{10}##
I understand time dilation due to speed, but am confused on why time dilates depending on the distance from a mass. Help?
Time dilation in SR is rewritten in GR way as ##g_{00}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}} < 1## thus proper time ##d\tau < dt## coordinate time.
I thought of Rindler system and rotation system that are fully understood by SR and have metric ##g_{00}## not equal to one.
error in formula was corrected.
As for rotation system, ##g_{00}=1-\frac{r^2\omega^2}{c^2}## where ##r\omega=v## is tangent velocity of rotation in IFR where center of rotation is at rest.