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How does it not contradict the Cohen's theorem?
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[QUOTE="Zafa Pi, post: 5844300, member: 486757"] The infinities of interest are those of t and p (which are =), and you say they are not Aleph1 and(?) c. Assuming the CH (which is consistent) they in fact are. Maybe I'm not reading your sentence correctly. Wow. I find this hard to believe since I think I can prove the cardinality is c. For an infinite subset of N, order it with [1.ω) and order it's complement with [ω,α) where ω ≤ α ≤ 2ω. There are c infinite subsets of N. Many of these will have the same order type. Perhaps you are thinking of the number of countable well order types. [/QUOTE]
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How does it not contradict the Cohen's theorem?
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