How Does the Maximum Modulus Principle Apply to Polynomial Functions?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the Maximum Modulus Principle as it applies to polynomial functions and rational functions. Participants are examining properties of polynomials and their coefficients in relation to maximum values on the unit circle.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to show that the coefficients of a polynomial are less than the maximum modulus on the unit circle. There is also a discussion about the implications of a polynomial being identically zero and how that affects the inequalities. Questions are raised regarding the order of zeros for rational functions and the relationship between derivatives and integrals.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different interpretations of the inequalities and the implications of the Maximum Modulus Principle. Some guidance has been offered regarding the need for careful comparison of inequalities, and there is an active inquiry into the nature of zeros in rational functions.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of specific conditions regarding the degrees of polynomials in the rational function context, as well as the need to consider cases where the polynomial may be constant zero.

podboy6
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So my professor threw in what he called an extra 'hard' question for a practice test. So naturally I have a question about it. It relates to the Maximum Modulus Principle:

a) Let [tex]p(z) = a_0 + a_1 z + a_2 z^2 + ...[/tex]
and let M = max |p(z)| on |z|=1.
Show that [tex]|a_i|< M[/tex] for [tex]i = 0,1,2.[/tex]

b) What is the order of the zero at infinity if f(z) is a rational function of the form

[tex]f(z) = \frac {p(z)}{q(z)}[/tex]

where both p(z) and q(z) are both polynomials and [tex]deg(p) < deg(q).[/tex]
 
Last edited:
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podboy6 said:
a) Let [tex]p(z) = a_0 + a_1 z + a_2 z^2 + ...[/tex]
and let M = max |p(z)| on |z|=1.
Show that [tex]|a_i|< M[/tex] for [tex]i = 0,1,2.[/tex]
As you have it, that's not necessarily true.
Consider:
[tex]p(z) \equiv 0[/tex]
That is, the polynomial is constant zero.
Then [tex]M=0[/tex],but
[tex]a_i = M = 0[/tex] which contradicts [tex]|a_i|<M[/tex]
 
okay, it should be [tex]|a_i|[/tex] is less than or equal to M for [tex]i=0,1,2.[/tex]
 
So, have you tried anything?
 
Well, for the first part, given that |p(z)| [tex]\leq[/tex]|M| for |z|=1,
and with:
p(0)=[tex]a_0[/tex]
p'(0)=[tex]a_1[/tex]
p''(0)=[tex]2a_2[/tex],

then in general,

[tex]|p^k (0)| \geq \frac{k!}{2\pi i} \int_{|z|=1} \frac{f(z)}{z^(k+1)} dz \Rightarrow \frac{k!}{2\pi i} \int_{0}^{2\pi} f( e^(it) ) dt \leq k!M[/tex].

thats about as far for that one. the other one is

[tex]\frac{p(z)}{q(z)} = \frac{a_0 + a_1 z +...+a_k z^k}{b_0 + b_1 z +...+b_l z^l}[/tex] for some l>k. After that, I'm still working.
 
Last edited:
a) check your inequalities a little more carefeully, specifically comparing the derivatives at 0 to the integral.

b) What is the order of the zero of f(1/z) at z=0?
 

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