How does theta transform into theta minus pi/2 in complex numbers?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the transformation of the angle theta into theta minus pi/2 within the context of complex numbers, specifically using Euler's formula. Participants clarify that the equation ie^{-i\theta}=e^{i\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\theta\right)} is valid by demonstrating the relationship through co-function identities and the properties of the imaginary unit i. The transformation is confirmed by showing that i = e^{i \frac{\pi}{2}}, which resolves the apparent discrepancy in the equation.

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aruwin
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Hi!
Can you tell me how the theta changes into theta minus pi/2? Can you show me, please?
 

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Hint: Use Euler's formula and the co-function identities for sine and cosine to demonstrate that:

$$ie^{-i\theta}=e^{i\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\theta\right)}$$
 
MarkFL said:
Hint: Use Euler's formula and the co-function identities for sine and cosine to demonstrate that:

$$ie^{-i\theta}=e^{i\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\theta\right)}$$

How did the "i" disappear?
 
aruwin said:
How did the "i" disappear?

$i = e^{i \frac{\pi}{2}}$
 
The problem with this 'identity' is that in the first term there is the factor $\displaystyle e^{- j\ \theta} $ and in second there is the factor $\displaystyle e^{j\ \theta}$... and that is impossible!(Tmi)...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
chisigma said:
The problem with this 'identity' is that in the first term there is the factor $\displaystyle e^{- j\ \theta} $ and in second there is the factor $\displaystyle e^{j\ \theta}$... and that is impossible!(Tmi)...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$

Do you mean that the equation is actually wrong?
 
chisigma said:
The problem with this 'identity' is that in the first term there is the factor $\displaystyle e^{- j\ \theta} $ and in second there is the factor $\displaystyle e^{j\ \theta}$... and that is impossible!(Tmi)...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$

Except that the second term is out by a factor of "i", which DOES make it correct.
 
aruwin said:
Do you mean that the equation is actually wrong?

Yes, I do... the correct procedure in my opinion is...

$\displaystyle \frac{E_{s}^{2} - E_{s}\ E_{r}\ e^{- j\ \theta}}{- j\ X} = j\ \frac{E_{s}^{2}}{X} - j\ \frac{E_{s}\ E_{r}}{X}\ e^{- j\ \theta} = j\ \frac{E_{s}^{2}}{X} + \frac{E_{s}\ E_{r}}{X}\ e^{- j\ (\theta + \frac{\pi}{2})}$

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
chisigma said:
Yes, I do... the correct procedure in my opinion is...

$\displaystyle \frac{E_{s}^{2} - E_{s}\ E_{r}\ e^{- j\ \theta}}{- j\ X} = j\ \frac{E_{s}^{2}}{X} - j\ \frac{E_{s}\ E_{r}}{X}\ e^{- j\ \theta} = j\ \frac{E_{s}^{2}}{X} + \frac{E_{s}\ E_{r}}{X}\ e^{- j\ (\theta + \frac{\pi}{2})}$

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$

Could you explain to me how the j on the right disappeared?
 
  • #10
aruwin said:
Could you explain to me how the j on the right disappeared?

... because is $\displaystyle j= e^{\ j\ \frac{\pi}{2}}$...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
  • #11
aruwin said:
How did the "i" disappear?

This is what I had in mind:

Use Euler's formula:

$$ie^{-i\theta}=i\left(\cos(\theta)-i\sin(\theta\right)$$

Use co-function identities:

$$ie^{-i\theta}=i\left(\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\theta\right)-i\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\theta\right)\right)$$

Distribute the $i$ and rearrange:

$$ie^{-i\theta}=\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\theta\right)+i\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\theta\right)$$

Use Euler's formula:

$$ie^{-i\theta}=e^{i\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\theta\right)}$$
 

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