How to Apply the Hamiltonian to a Wavefunction in Quantum Electromagnetism?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around applying the Hamiltonian operator to a wavefunction in the context of quantum electromagnetism, specifically for a charged particle in electromagnetic potentials defined by a scalar function. Participants are examining the implications of this setup on the wavefunction and its relationship to the Schrödinger equation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to determine how to correctly apply the Hamiltonian to the wavefunction, questioning whether to apply the Laplacian operator to just the scalar function or to the product of the scalar function and the wavefunction. There is also discussion about the correct form of the Hamiltonian and its components.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the correct application of the Hamiltonian and suggested a more straightforward approach to simplify the process. There is acknowledgment of a potential typo in the Hamiltonian's formulation, and participants are actively engaging in clarifying their understanding of the problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the wavefunction for the case where the scalar function is zero is known, but there is uncertainty about how to proceed with the Hamiltonian's application in the presence of the scalar function. The discussion reflects a mix of interpretations and approaches without reaching a definitive conclusion.

frogjg2003
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Homework Statement



Consider a charged particle of charge e traveling in the electromagnetic
potentials
<br /> \mathbf{A}(\mathbf{r},t) = -\mathbf{\nabla}\lambda(\mathbf{r},t)\\<br /> \phi(\mathbf{r},t) = \frac{1}{c} \frac{\partial \lambda(\mathbf{r},t)}{\partial t}<br />
where \lambda(\mathbf{r},t) is an arbitrary scalar function.

Show that the wavefunction is
<br /> \psi(\mathbf{r},t) = exp\left(-\frac{\mathit{i}e}{\hbar c} \lambda(\mathbf{r},t)\right) \psi^{(0)}(\mathbf{r},t)<br />
where \phi^{(0)}(\mathbf{r},t) is the solution to the Schrödinger equation for the case \lambda(\mathbf{r},t)=0.
of ¸(r, t) = 0.

Homework Equations



\hat{H} = \frac{(\mathbf{p}-\frac{q}{c}\mathbf{A}(\mathbf{r},t))^2}{2m} + q\phi(\mathbf{r},t)

The Attempt at a Solution



The Hamiltonian is
<br /> \hat{H} = \frac{(\mathit{i}\hbar\mathbf{\nabla} + \frac{e}{c}\mathbf{\nabla}\lambda(\mathbf{r},t))^2}{2m} + \frac{e}{c} \frac{\partial\lambda(\mathbf{r},t)}{\partial t}<br />
and the \lambda=0 wavefunction is
<br /> \psi^{(0)} = exp(\mathit{i} \left(\mathbf{k}\cdot\mathbf{r} - \frac{\hbar k^2 t}{2m}\right)<br />

I'm stuck at applying the Hamiltonian to the function. For the \nabla^2\lambda\psi term, do we apply the Laplacian to just \lambda or to \lambda\psi? Similarly for the cross term and the time derivative.

Is it
<br /> \hat{H}\psi = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2\psi + \frac{\mathit{i}e\hbar}{2mc} \left(\nabla\cdot(\psi\nabla\lambda) + (\nabla\lambda)\cdot(\nabla\psi)\right) + \frac{e}{2mc}\psi\nabla^2\lambda + \frac{e}{c} \psi\frac{\partial\lambda}{\partial t}<br />
or
<br /> \hat{H}\psi = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2\psi + \frac{\mathit{i}e\hbar}{2mc} \left(\nabla^2(\psi\lambda) + (\nabla\lambda\cdot\nabla)\psi\right) + \frac{e}{2mc}\nabla^2(\lambda\psi) + \frac{e}{c} \frac{\partial(\lambda\psi)}{\partial t}<br />
 
Last edited:
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frogjg2003 said:
The Hamiltonian is
<br /> \hat{H} = \frac{(\mathit{i}\hbar\mathbf{\nabla} + \frac{e}{c}\mathbf{\nabla}\lambda(\mathbf{r},t))^2}{2m} + \frac{e}{c} \frac{\partial\lambda(\mathbf{r},t)}{\partial t}<br />
and the \lambda=0 wavefunction is
<br /> \psi^{(0)} = exp(\mathit{i} \left(\mathbf{k}\cdot\mathbf{r} - \frac{\hbar k^2 t}{2m}\right)<br />
Note typo: In the first term of the Hamiltonian, there should be a negative sign before the ##\mathit{i}\hbar##
I'm stuck at applying the Hamiltonian to the function. For the \nabla^2\lambda\psi term, do we apply the Laplacian to just \lambda or to \lambda\psi? Similarly for the cross term and the time derivative.

Is it
<br /> \hat{H}\psi = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2\psi + \frac{\mathit{i}e\hbar}{2mc} \left(\nabla\cdot(\psi\nabla\lambda) + (\nabla\lambda)\cdot(\nabla\psi)\right) + \frac{e}{2mc}\psi\nabla^2\lambda + \frac{e}{c} \psi\frac{\partial\lambda}{\partial t}<br />
or
<br /> \hat{H}\psi = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2\psi + \frac{\mathit{i}e\hbar}{2mc} \left(\nabla^2(\psi\lambda) + (\nabla\lambda\cdot\nabla)\psi\right) + \frac{e}{2mc}\nabla^2(\lambda\psi) + \frac{e}{c} \frac{\partial(\lambda\psi)}{\partial t}<br />

It's the first form that's correct (with a negative sign for the second term). However, it's much easier to apply the hamiltonian in the form
<br /> \hat{H} = \frac{(\mathit{-i}\hbar\mathbf{\nabla} + \frac{e}{c}\mathbf{\nabla}\lambda(\mathbf{r},t))({-i}\hbar\mathbf{\nabla} + \frac{e}{c}\mathbf{\nabla}\lambda(\mathbf{r},t))}{2m} + \frac{e}{c} \frac{\partial\lambda(\mathbf{r},t)}{\partial t}<br />

where you first apply the right hand factor ##(\mathit{-i}\hbar\mathbf{\nabla} + \frac{e}{c}\mathbf{\nabla}\lambda(\mathbf{r},t))## to the wave function and simplify before applying the second factor of ##(\mathit{-i}\hbar\mathbf{\nabla} + \frac{e}{c}\mathbf{\nabla}\lambda(\mathbf{r},t))##.
 
Thanks.
I was doing a bit too much work. I didn't need to know the form of \psi^{(0)}, just that it solved the free particle Schrödinger equation. From there, I just applied the Hamiltonian and started simplifying. I got the original free particle Shodinger equation right back.
 
Good deal.
 

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