How to Calculate a Limit Using Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem?

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SUMMARY

The forum discussion focuses on calculating the limit \(\lim _{x \to 0} \frac{\cos f(x) - \cos g(x)}{x^2}\) using Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem. Participants suggest using L'Hôpital's rule, but caution that the differentiability of functions \(f\) and \(g\) at points other than zero is not guaranteed. The final expression simplifies to \(\frac{(g'(0))^2 - (f'(0))^2}{2}\), assuming the derivatives exist and are defined at zero.

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  • #31
is that ok??
<br /> \lim_{x-&gt;0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}=const\\<br />
<br /> \lim_{x-&gt;0}\frac{g(x)-g(0)}{x}=const<br />
 
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  • #32
It's not a constant. Stop doing that.
 
  • #33
ok its not a constant i have written my words into math
what is the next step??
 
  • #34
What does the fact that the derivatives exist at x=0 tell you about the value of the functions for x near zero?
 
  • #35
it tells me that the values from the right and left sides little by little become
closer to the value at f(0)

differential is also continues
<br /> \lim_{x-&gt;0^+}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}=\lim_{x-&gt;0^-}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}=f(0)=0<br />
??
 
  • #36
You aren't telling me anything you didn't say in post 29, and that last bit, that the derivatives are zero, is wrong.
 
  • #37
sorry i ment to write the definition of continuity
<br /> \lim_{x-&gt;0^+}f(x)=\lim_{x-&gt;0^-}f(x)=f(0)=0<br />??
 
  • #38
Stop with the "??" stuff, please. And please answer the question raised in post #34.
 
  • #39
i don't know
i think that if the derivative exist at x=0
and because i was told that f(0)=g(0)=0
then the function around zero would have values close to 0.
 
  • #40
Say that mathematically.
 
  • #41
<br /> \lim_{x-&gt;0^+}f(x)=\lim_{x-&gt;0^-}f(x)=f(0)=0<br /> <br />
 
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  • #42
What is the value of f(x) for x near zero?
 
  • #43
the value of f(x) near zero is close to 0
i can't imagine anything else
 
  • #44
What does f&#039;(0) = \lim_{x\to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x} tell you about f(x) when x is close to but not equal to zero?
 
  • #45
it tells me that the slope of f(x) in the ever closing interval near point 0
(from x to 0)
gets closser to the value of f'(0)
 
  • #46
I did not ask for that and you specifically do not know that. In post #22 you said "f(x) and g(x) are not necessarily differentiable around 0".

I asked you to tell me about f(x) near 0. What is it, approximately?
 
  • #47
transgalactic said:
is that ok??
<br /> \lim_{x-&gt;0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}=const\\<br />
<br /> \lim_{x-&gt;0}\frac{g(x)-g(0)}{x}=const<br />
transgalactic said:
it tells me that the values from the right and left sides little by little become
closer to the value at f(0)

differential is also continues
<br /> \lim_{x-&gt;0^+}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}=\lim_{x-&gt;0^-}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}=f(0)=0<br />
??

hey guys! why is everybody going round in circles?

transgalactic, you're doing your usual problem of not quite writing what you mean …

you meant <br /> \lim_{x-&gt;0^+}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}=\lim_{x-&gt;0^-}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x} = f'(0) = 0 :rolleyes:

(btw, the differential is not necessarily continuous … as you pointed out, we don't even know that it exists except at x = 0 … the equation above is the definition of f'(0), isn't it? :smile:)

hmm … where had we got to? :confused:

oh yes … we'd found that if f was differentiable over a neighbourhood, then we could use l'Hôpital's rule (twice) to get (g'(0)2 - f'(0)2)/2

but all we know about f' and g' is that they exist (and are 0) at x = 0, and they may not even exist anywhere else

but we can be pretty confident that the answer is still (g'(0)2 - f'(0)2)/2 … so let's set about proving it

let's remind ourselve of the original question:
f(x) and g(x) are differentiable on 0
f(0)=g(0)=0

calculate
\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{cosf(x)-cosg(x)}{x^2}

and let's rewrite that as

\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{(cos(f(x)) - 1) - (cos(g(x)) - 1)}{x^2}

(we're doing that because (cos(0) - 1) is 0, and so (cos - 1) will be much more convenient than cos in a moment)

and then just consider half of it …

\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{cos(f(x)) - 1}{x^2}

what expansion or approximation do you know for cos(f(x)) - 1 when x -> 0? :smile:
 
  • #48
the expansion for cos x around 0 is
<br /> cosx=1+0-\frac{x^2}{2!}<br />
but we need to substitute f(x) instead of x in cos x
??

and i was told specifically that the function not necessarily differentiable around 0 .
so on what basis e use lhopital law(twice)?
regard D.H question:
i don't know what is the value of f(x) around zero
i ran out of options.
 
  • #49
transgalactic said:
the expansion for cos x around 0 is
cosx=1+0-\frac{x^2}{2!}
but we need to substitute f(x) instead of x in cos x …

(why did you write +0? :confused:

did you mean O(x4)?)

Yes … you do need to substitute f(x) … so it's
cos(f(x))=1\ -\ \frac{(f(x))^2}{2!}
… and i was told specifically that the function not necessarily differentiable around 0 .

ah, but we haven't used f'

that equation only uses f.

ok, so what can you say about \lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{cos(f(x)) - 1}{x^2} ? :smile:
 
  • #50
i got this expression but i have x in the denominator
so its not defined when x->0 because the numenator goes to 0 too.
<br /> \lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{1\ -\ \frac{(f(x))^2}{2!} - 1}{x^2}=\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{\ -\ (f(x))^2 }{x^22!}<br />
 
  • #51
So what is f(x) near zero?

Tiny-tim, please do not give this away.
 
  • #52
transgalactic said:
i got this expression but i have x in the denominator
so its not defined when x->0 because the numenator goes to 0 too.
\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{1\ -\ \frac{(f(x))^2}{2!} - 1}{x^2}=\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{\ -\ (f(x))^2 }{x^22!}

ok, rewrite that as \frac{-1}{2}\,\lim _{x-&gt;0}\left(\frac{f(x) }{x}\right)^2

and since the product of the limits is the limit of the product, that equals

\frac{-1}{2}\,\left(\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{f(x) }{x}\right)^2

which = … ? :smile:
 
  • #53
i don't know what's the value of the limit

f(x) goes goes to f(0) but not equals f(0) so i don't know what's the value of the
numerator.
and i got 0 in the denominator

so
?
 
  • #54
Difference quotient for f'(0).
 
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  • #55
I think what Dick is getting at is, what is the definition of f'(0)?
 
  • #56
i don't know what is the value of f'(0)
i know that f(0)=0

<br /> f&#039;(x)=\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{f(x)-0}{x-0}<br /> <br />
this is the definition of the derivative
i don't know how to continue

you said also "Difference quotient" so i used
<br /> f&#039;(x)=\lim _{h-&gt;0}\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}<br />
but i don't have any values for it.
 
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  • #57
D H said:
So what is f(x) near zero?

Tiny-tim, please do not give this away.
i gave every option i can think of.
i don't know.
 
  • #58
transgalactic said:
i don't know what is the value of f'(0)
i know that f(0)=0

f&#039;(x)=\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{f(x)-0}{x-0}
this is the definition of the derivative
i don't know how to continue

transgalactic, that isn't the definition of f'(x), it's the definition of f'(0) (using x instead of the more usual h, and since f(0) = 0):

f&#039;(0)=\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{f(x)-0}{x-0}=\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{f(x)}{x}

ok, so now you have …
\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{cos(f(x)) - 1}{x^2}\ =
transgalactic said:
\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{1\ -\ \frac{(f(x))^2}{2!} - 1}{x^2}=\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{\ -\ (f(x))^2 }{x^22!}
=\ \frac{-1}{2}\,\left(\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{f(x) }{x}\right)^2

= … ? :smile:
 
  • #59
ok i am doing that as a shot in the dark
inspite of the fact the f(x->0) differs f(0)

and i put the given f(0)=0
<br /> \ \frac{-1}{2}\,\left(\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{f(x) }{x}\right)^2=\ \frac{-1}{2}\,\left(\lim _{x-&gt;0}\frac{0 }{0}\right)^2=<br />

so i don't know how to solve it.
 
  • #60
how to get the last part?
 

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