How to Determine the Fourier Series for f(x)=cos3x

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SUMMARY

The Fourier Series for the function f(x) = cos(3x) can be determined using the standard Fourier series equations. The coefficients a0 and an are both zero, while the coefficient b_n is zero for all n due to the odd function property of cos^3(x)sin(nx). The integral for a1 yields a value of 3/4 after applying the normalization factor of 1/(2π). To compute higher-order terms, it is recommended to use trigonometric identities to simplify the integration process.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier Series and its coefficients (a0, an, bn)
  • Knowledge of trigonometric identities and integration techniques
  • Familiarity with odd and even functions in calculus
  • Experience with integral calculus over the interval [-π, π]
NEXT STEPS
  • Learn how to apply trigonometric identities to simplify integrals involving cos^3(x)
  • Study the derivation of Fourier Series coefficients in detail
  • Explore the implications of odd and even functions in Fourier analysis
  • Practice integrating functions over the interval [-π, π] with various trigonometric forms
USEFUL FOR

Students studying Fourier analysis, mathematicians interested in series expansions, and educators teaching advanced calculus concepts.

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Homework Statement



determine the Fourier Series for f(x)=cos3x

Homework Equations



f(x)=ao/2+(sum) an cos(nx)+ (sum) bncos(nx)

ao= (integral) f(x)dx (from -\pi to\pi)

an= (integral) f(x)cos(nx)dx (from -\pi to\pi)

bn= (integral) f(x)sin(nx)dx (from -\pi to\pi)

The Attempt at a Solution



i worked out that ao and an are both zero, which is fine. however when i go to work out bn i get answers that are divided by (n-1) and (n-3) which means that when i try and find b1 and b3 I'm dividing by zero. i don't know what to do now! can this function be made into a Fourier Series?
 
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have i done the integration wrong here?I feel liek i must have sense i don't really know how i would go about integrating cos3x sin(nx) OR cos3x cos(nx)
 
I don't see how you could get that "a0 and an" are 0. Since [math]cos^3(x)sin(x)[/math] is an odd function, it immediately follows that the integral from -\pi to \pi is 0- that is that b_n= 0 for all n.

And, it is easy to show that a_0= 0 but
a_1= \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}cos^4(x)dx

Since cos^2(x)= (1/2)(1+ cos(2x)), cos^4(x)= (1/4)(1+ cos(2x))^2=1/4+ (1/2)cos(2x)+ (1/4)cos^2(2x))
= 1/4+ (1/2)cos(2x)+ (1/4)(1+ cos(4x))=(3/4)+ (1/2)cos(2x)+ (1/4)cos(4x)

Now, since the integral of cosine is sine and sine is 0 at any integer multiple of \pi, those two cosine integrals will be 0 but the integral of 3/4, from -\pi to \pi will be 3\pi/2, not 0.

By the way, I think you are missing the normalzing factor of 1/(2\pi) in front of the integrals. a_1= (3\pi/2)(1/2\pi)= 3/4, no 0.

For higher order terms, to integrate3 cos^3(x)cos(nx), with n> 1, you will need to reduce either cos^3(x) or cos(nx).
 
You can avoid doing any integrals by doing as HallsofIvy did for cos4 x and use trig identities to expand cos3 x.
 

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