Fourier Analysis for |x| and Proving a Series Convergence

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the Fourier series of the function f(x) = |x| defined on the interval [-π, π] and the proof of a series convergence related to odd integers. Participants explore the computation of the Fourier series and the relationship between different series representations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the computation of the Fourier coefficients and the implications of the even nature of the function. There is an exploration of how to manipulate the series to show the equivalence between different summations, particularly focusing on the series involving odd integers.

Discussion Status

The conversation includes attempts to clarify the relationship between the series representations and the original problem statement. Some participants express uncertainty about the manipulation of the series, while others acknowledge the complexity of the course material.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the challenge in transitioning from one series form to another, indicating possible gaps in understanding or assumptions about the series convergence. The context of the homework rules and the nature of the problem may also influence the discussion.

RJLiberator
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Homework Statement


Consider a 2pi-periodic function f(x) = |x| for -pi ≤ x ≤ pi
a) Compute the Fourier series of the function f.
b) Prove that (from n=1 to n=infinity)∑ 1/(2k-1)^2 = pi^2/8.**note all "sums" from here on out will be defined from n = 1 to n=infinity

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



For part a we start with the definition of the Fourier series
f(x) = 1/2*a_0 + ∑(a_n*cos(n*x)+b_n*sin(n*x))

Since f is an even function, we know that b_n = 0.

a_n = (2/pi)*integral from 0 to pi of (x*cos(nx))dx
a_n = 2((-1)^n-1)/(pi*n^2)

a_0 = 1/pi * integral from -pi to pi of |x| dx = pi

So we have the following Fourier series for f(x) and the answer for part a:

pi/2 + ∑2((-1)^n-1)/(pi*n^2) * cos(nx)
For part b, we set x = 0, and find

|x| = pi/2 + ∑2((-1)^n-1)/(pi*n^2) * cos(nx)
=> -pi/2 = ∑2((-1)^n-1)/(pi*n^2)
=> -pi^2/4 = ∑((-1)^n-1)/n^2
Divide both sides by -2
=> pi^2/8 = ∑((-1)^n-1)/(-2*n^2)
But I'm not quite sure how to get the right side (the sum) similar to ∑ 1/(2k-1)^2
 
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You wonder how ## {1\over 1} + 0 + {1\over 9} + 0 + {1\over 25} ... ## (n = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) can be equal to
## {1\over 1} + {1\over 9} + {1\over 25} ... ## (k = 1, 2, 3) :smile: ?
 
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Ah, I see.

So, in the end, I was doing things right here.

It was my inability to manipulate the problem to come to the conclusion.

Tough, tough course.
 
Good thing there is PF :wink:
 
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