How to differentiate this potential energy function?

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To differentiate the potential energy function V(x,y)=V(ax-by) with respect to x and y, the chain rule is applied, leading to the derivatives (d/dt)p1=-aV'(ax-by) and (d/dt)p2=+bV'(ax-by). The confusion arises from the negative sign in the first derivative, which is attributed to the structure of the potential energy function itself. The variables p1 and p2 represent the x and y components of Newton's second law, indicating the relationship between force and potential energy. Understanding the application of the chain rule and the negative sign in the Lagrangian formulation clarifies the derivation process. This discussion highlights the importance of multivariable calculus in analyzing potential energy functions.
diredragon
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Homework Statement


Given the potential energy function V(x,y)=V(ax-by) where a,b is an arbitrary constants differentiate with respect to x and y.

Homework Equations


Multivariavle differentiation

The Attempt at a Solution


The answer yields (d/dt)p1=-aV'(ax-by)
(d/dt)p2=+bV'(ax-by). The right side is confusing. How did it get to that? I am not in my MultiCal class yet as I am just in the middle of SingCal so i don't get it. Can you guide through the process?
 
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Assuming ## z=ax-by ## and using chain rule, we have:
## \frac{dV}{dx}=\frac{dV}{dz}\frac{dz}{dx}=a\frac{dV}{dz}##. Now we change the name of ## \frac{dV}{dz} ## to ## V'##.
 
Ok, but why is it -aV'?
 
At first I didn't know what are p1 and p2 and what are those equations, but I thought you yourself know! Anyway, I think those are the x and y components of Newton's 2nd law and so they are components of ## \frac{d\vec p}{dt}=-[\frac{dV}{dx}\hat x+\frac{dV}{dy}\hat y]##. The extra minus sign is because of the minus sign in the formula itself.
 
Oh yes, i know what the equations are but have totally forgotten about the minus in front of the right side of lagrangian. Thanks
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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