How to Interpret Multidimensional Limits?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on interpreting multidimensional limits, specifically the limit expression \lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\lim\limits_{y \to \infty} x\frac{1}{y}. The conclusion drawn is that this limit does not exist, as interchanging the order of limits can lead to different results. Specifically, \lim \limits_{x \to \infty}\left(\lim\limits_{y \to \infty} \frac{x}{y}\right)=0, while \lim\limits_{y \to \infty}\left(\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} \frac{x}{y}\right> does not exist. This illustrates that limits do not commute in multidimensional contexts.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limits in calculus
  • Familiarity with multidimensional functions
  • Knowledge of the concept of limit existence
  • Basic algebraic manipulation of expressions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of limits in multivariable calculus
  • Learn about the conditions under which limits exist
  • Explore examples of non-commuting limits in mathematical analysis
  • Investigate the behavior of functions approaching infinity in multiple dimensions
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Mathematics students, educators, and anyone studying calculus or mathematical analysis, particularly those interested in the complexities of multidimensional limits.

melknin
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I'm trying to understand how to interpret multidemensional limits. For example, suppose you have the following:

[tex]\lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\lim\limits_{y \to \infty} x\frac{1}{y}[/tex]

Would this be infinity, 0, or 1?

This is really a more general version of the question I'm working with regarding the behavior of a function that has the property [tex]f_a(b) \to\limits_{a \to \infty} 1[/tex] and [tex]f_a(b) \to\limits_{b \to \infty} \infty[/tex] in the context that both a and b are going to infinity.

Thanks in advance for any help!
 
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melknin said:
I'm trying to understand how to interpret multidemensional limits. For example, suppose you have the following:

[tex]\lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\lim\limits_{y \to \infty} x\frac{1}{y}[/tex]

Would this be infinity, 0, or 1?
Well,
[tex]\lim \limits_{x \to \infty}\left(\lim\limits_{y \to \infty} \frac{x}{y}\right)=\lim \limits_{x \to \infty} 0=0[/tex]
,but
[tex]\lim\limits_{y \to \infty}\left(\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} \frac{x}{y}\right<br /> )[/tex]
doesn't exist, because [itex]\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} \frac{x}{y}[/itex] doesn't exist.

So that shows that, in general, you can't just interchange limits. They don't commute.
 
melknin said:
I'm trying to understand how to interpret multidemensional limits. For example, suppose you have the following:

[tex]\lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\lim\limits_{y \to \infty} x\frac{1}{y}[/tex]

Would this be infinity, 0, or 1?

None of the above! The limit simply doesn't exist.

This is really a more general version of the question I'm working with regarding the behavior of a function that has the property [tex]f_a(b) \to\limits_{a \to \infty} 1[/tex] and [tex]f_a(b) \to\limits_{b \to \infty} \infty[/tex] in the context that both a and b are going to infinity.

Thanks in advance for any help!
That means there are points arbitrarily far from the origin such that f is close to 1 and also points such that f is arbitrarily large. There is no one number (not even [itex]\infty[/itex]) that the function gets close to. If there are two different limits by approaching a given point (even "the point at infinity" in two different ways, then the limit itself does not exist.
 

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