How to Prove 2^n > n^2 for n>4 without using induction?

  • Thread starter Thread starter ngkamsengpeter
  • Start date Start date
Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
6 replies · 3K views
ngkamsengpeter
Messages
193
Reaction score
0
How to prove that [tex]2^n > n^2[/tex] when n>4 ?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You could use the fact that both functions are continuous and never cross after that point. If you are only interested in integer n then you could use induction.
 
*Waves hand*
An exponential function grows faster than a polynomial.
 
That is not sufficient--it does not rule out the possibility of some point before infinity but after 4 where the inequality does not hold.

For integer n, induction is the way to go. Otherwise, you can show directly that the second derivative of 2^n is greater than that of n^2 for n > 4, and the first derivative of 2^n is greater than that of n^2 for n = 4. From this it is possible to infer the conclusion by integration.
 
0rthodontist said:
You could use the fact that both functions are continuous and never cross after that point. If you are only interested in integer n then you could use induction.
If I don't want to use induction but want to prove it mathematically ,how to do it ?
 
ngkamsengpeter said:
If I don't want to use induction but want to prove it mathematically ,how to do it ?
?
Huh?
What do you mean by mathematically? What's wrong with using induction, by the way? As a matter of fact, it's completely valid!
 
ngkamsengpeter said:
If I don't want to use induction but want to prove it mathematically ,how to do it ?
Induction would be simpler for this case if you want to prove it for integers. The other way I mentioned is using the function [tex]f(x) = 2^x - x^2[/tex]. You should be able to show that [tex]f'(4) > 0[/tex] and also that [tex]f''(x) > 0[/tex] for any x larger than 4. And you know that f(4) = 0. Then use
[tex]\int_a^t g'(x) dx + g(a) = g(t)[/tex]
to show that [tex]f'(x) > 0[/tex] for x > 4 and then that [tex]f(x) > 0[/tex] for x > 4.
 
Last edited: