How to prove differentiable everywhere?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that a function is differentiable everywhere, particularly at the point (0,0). The subject area includes calculus and the differentiability of functions of multiple variables.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore different methods to establish differentiability, including using the first principle of limits and checking the equality of mixed partial derivatives. Some participants question the validity of these approaches and the definitions involved.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing various perspectives on the methods to prove differentiability. Some guidance has been offered regarding the definitions of differentiability, but there is no explicit consensus on the correct approach or interpretation of the problem.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of confusion regarding the definitions of differentiability for functions of multiple variables, and some participants express concerns about the existence of certain derivatives at the point (0,0).

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Homework Statement


See photo, part b and c


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


For part b
It seems it is trival, in part a we have proved that [itex]f_{x}[/itex] and [itex]f_{y}[/itex] exist. Obviously, they are differentiable for x and y[itex]\neq[/itex]0

For part c.
It seems there are 2 method to do it.
1. Use first principle.(i.e. take limit)
2.Find [itex]f_{xy}[/itex] and [itex]f_{yx}[/itex]
If they equal each other, then f is differentiable at(0,0)
 

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athrun200 said:

Homework Statement


See photo, part b and c


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


For part b
It seems it is trival, in part a we have proved that [itex]f_{x}[/itex] and [itex]f_{y}[/itex] exist. Obviously, they are differentiable for x and y[itex]\neq[/itex]0

For part c.
It seems there are 2 method to do it.
1. Use first principle.(i.e. take limit)
What limit are you talking about? "Differentiability" of a function of two variables is NOT defined by a limit. You might want to look up the definition of "differentiable" for functions of more than one variable.

2.Find [itex]f_{xy}[/itex] and [itex]f_{yx}[/itex]
If they equal each other, then f is differentiable at(0,0)
No, that's not true. There is a theorem that says "If a function is differentiable, on a region, then its mixed second derivatives are equal on that region", but the converse of that statement is not true.
 
How about part b?
You only talk about part c
 
Yes, (b) is trivial- f is a quotient of two polynomials and the denominator is not 0 for any point other than (0, 0).
 
HallsofIvy said:
What limit are you talking about? "Differentiability" of a function of two variables is NOT defined by a limit. You might want to look up the definition of "differentiable" for functions of more than one variable.
But I saw from wiki that it is.
If not, how do I prove differentiable?

cb2be0dc4607423c38120e364c9d4a65.png
 
I also wonder if [itex]f_{x}[/itex]=[itex]\frac{(2^xy^3-6x^2y^2-2x^4)}{(y^4+2x^2y^2+x^4)}[/itex] exist at (0,0).

If not, it seems the question part a has some problems.
 

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