How to show the root mean square deviation

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The discussion revolves around calculating the root mean square deviation (σ^2) using fixed parameters (λ_i) and their associated counts (n_i). The initial approach lacked a random variable component, which is essential for proper calculation. A suggestion was made to define a random variable for each step, allowing for a clearer understanding of the relationship between the number of steps and the square deviation. The final formulation proposed involves summing over both the indices of the steps and their respective values, leading to a more accurate expression for σ^2. This clarification indicates a better grasp of the problem and the necessary components for the calculation.
arcTomato
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Homework Statement
prove that the mean position after a given number of steps is the starting position
Relevant Equations
random walk
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Hi
I tried like this.
##σ^2=<(λ_1+λ_2+,,,+λ_i)^2>=<λ_1^2>+<λ_2^2>+,,,<λ_i^2>##
And I know ##σ^2=Σ_in_iλ_i^2##from equation (4-12) (so this is cheat 😅).

So I know also ##<λ_i^2>=n_iλ_i^2##, But why??

I know if I take ##λ=1 ,σ^2=n##,But I don't understand ##λ≠1## version.

Sorry my bad english.
Please help me!
 
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arcTomato said:
I tried like this.
##σ^2=<(λ_1+λ_2+...+λ_i)^2>=<λ_1^2>+<λ_2^2>+...+<λ_i^2>##

Why do you think that is true? If I understand the problem correctly, the ##\lambda_i## are fixed parameters and so are the ##n_i##. You need a random variable here.

Are you studying random walks in one dimension? Then let's define a random variable ##\Lambda_{ij}##, ##j = 1,n_i## which is either ##\lambda_i## or ##-\lambda_i## with equal probability. That is, corresponding to each ##\lambda_i## (fixed) there are ##n_i## (fixed number) of steps, each of which is either ##\lambda_i## to the right or ##\lambda_i## to the left (randomly).

Let's start with a simpler example. Let's suppose all the steps have the same size ##\lambda_1## and there are ##n_1## of them. So ##N = n_1##. So we have ##\Lambda_{11}, \Lambda_{12}, ..., \Lambda_{1,n_1} = \pm\lambda_1##. Obviously each has zero mean.

The total square deviation we are interested in is then ##\sigma^2 = <\left ( \sum_{j=1}^{n_1} \Lambda_{1j} \right )^2 > = \sum_{j=1}^{n_1} < \Lambda_{1j}^2 >## since the ##\Lambda_{1j}## are independent and the expectation of the cross terms is 0. Thus ##\sigma^2## in this case reduces to ##n_1 <\Lambda_{11}^2>##.

This is the familiar result that ##\sigma^2## is proportional to the number of steps. The final thing here (I leave it to you) is to replace the expectation value of ##\Lambda_{11}^2## by something in terms of the fixed parameters ##\lambda##.

You may think that this is what you were doing, but it's not. You didn't have a random variable in your expression, and you didn't have the right number of terms. You need to have a random variable for each of the ##n_i## steps of each size, as I did even when there is only one step size. So your steps will be ##\Lambda_{11}, \Lambda_{12}, ..., \Lambda_{1n_1} = \pm\lambda_1## and ##\Lambda_{21}, \Lambda_{22}, ..., \Lambda_{2n_2} = \pm \lambda_2##, etc., and you will need double sums.
 
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At first, Thank you for reply. Your explanation is so easy to understand.
I think I didn't understand the problem correctly.

I have to take the length like##Λ_{i,1},Λ_{i,2}...,Λ_{i,n_i}=±λ_i##.
so
##\sigma^2 = <\left ( \sum_{j=1}^{n_i}\sum_{i} \Lambda_{ij} \right )^2 > = \sum_{i} \sum_{j=1}^{n_i} < \Lambda_{ij}^2 >=\sum_{i} n_i(±\lambda_{i})^2 ##
I think this is almost the answer. Right??
 
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