How to Solve a Contour Integral with exp(-z^2) Over a Rectangle?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving the contour integral of exp(-z^2) over a rectangle defined by the vertices at 0, R, R + ia, and ia. The integral from 0 to R corresponds to the real integral, while the remaining sides require evaluating e^(-z^2) along the complex path. It is established that the contour integral equals zero if there are no poles, but the integral of e^(-z^2) can be utilized to evaluate the real integral int(0,inf)((e^(-x^2))*cos(2ax)), yielding a result of sqrt(pi)*exp(-a^2)/2. The approach involves integrating e^(-z^2) along each side of the rectangle, leading to a comprehensive understanding of the contour integral's behavior.

PREREQUISITES
  • Complex analysis fundamentals
  • Understanding of contour integrals
  • Familiarity with the Gaussian integral int(0, inf)(exp(-x^2)) = sqrt(pi/2)
  • Knowledge of analytic functions and their properties
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of analytic functions in complex analysis
  • Learn how to evaluate contour integrals using the residue theorem
  • Explore the relationship between Fourier transforms and Gaussian integrals
  • Investigate the implications of integrating complex functions along different paths
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Students and professionals in mathematics, particularly those studying complex analysis, as well as physicists interested in applications of contour integrals in quantum mechanics and signal processing.

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Homework Statement

Integrate exp(-z^2) over the rectangle with vertices at 0, R, R + ia, and ia.



Homework Equations



int(0, inf)(exp(-x^2)) = sqrt(pi/2)

The Attempt at a Solution

I really don't have much of an idea here - the function is analytic so has no residues... The part from 0 to R is just the real integral, but for the other 3 sides I'm not too sure on how to proceed.
 
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Isn't the contour integral equal to 0 if there are no poles?
 
ideasrule said:
Isn't the contour integral equal to 0 if there are no poles?
This is what I would have thought, but I'm supposed to be using the integral of e^(-z^2) to evaluate the real integral int(0,inf)((e^(-x^2))*cos(2ax)), which is apparently equal to
sqrt(pi)*exp(-a^2)/2.
 
Ah, that makes much more sense.

If we want to integrate from R+ia to ia, just integrate e^(-z^2)dz=e^-(x+ia)^2 dx from R to 0. Do the same for the other 3 sides. You won't get an analytic answer, but that's OK; just write out the entire contour integral first and you'll see where this is going.
 

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