How to solve an integral of a gaussian distribution

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SUMMARY

The integral of a Gaussian distribution, specifically the expression \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-(x-a)^{2}}\, dx, converges and can be solved using symmetry and polar coordinates. The solution involves recognizing that I = 2\int_{0}^\infty e^{-x^{2}}\, dx and manipulating the integral into a double integral form. The final result is derived from the properties of the normal distribution, confirming that \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^{2}}{2\sigma^{2}}}\, dx = 1.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Gaussian integrals
  • Familiarity with polar coordinates
  • Knowledge of substitution methods in calculus
  • Basic concepts of probability distributions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Gaussian integral
  • Learn about polar coordinate transformations in double integrals
  • Explore properties of normal distributions in statistics
  • Investigate advanced techniques for solving integrals involving exponentials
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Students in calculus or statistics courses, mathematicians, and anyone interested in solving integrals related to probability distributions.

DragonPetter
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Homework Statement


integrate

\int_{-\infty}^\infty\! e ^{(x-a)^{2}}\, dx

Homework Equations



\int \! e^u\, du = e^u + C

The Attempt at a Solution


i just know that du = 2(x-a), but there is no x to make use of substitution, so I am confused on how to go about solving this since I cannot use substitution
 
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EDIT: I'm assuming you mean
<br /> \int_{-\infty}^\infty\! e ^{-(x-a)^{2}}\, dx<br />​
since what you wrote doesn't converge.Anyway, this is a very tricky integral that requires a trick. By far the best way starts as follows:

First, letting I denote the original integral (after replacing x-a with x), notice that
I = 2\int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-x^{2}}\, dx​
by symmetry. Next comes the first trick:
I^2 = 4 \int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-x^{2}}\, dx \int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-x^{2}}\, dx = 4 \int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-x^{2}}\, dx \int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-y^{2}}\, dy​
since the x in the integral is just a dummy variable. But then
I^2 = 4\int_0^\infty\int_0^\infty\! e ^{-(x^{2}+y^{2})}\,dx\,dy.​

The traditional method is to at this point switch to polar coordinates, but a better way (I think) involves the substitution y=xu (so dy=xdu):
I^2 = 4\int_0^\infty\int_0^\infty\! e^{-x^2(1+u^2)}x\,dx\,du.​
From here, I think you should be able to figure this out on your own.
 
hmm my textbook is certainly not nice as it leaves this as an exercise with just telling me "(look up any integrals you need)"
and yes, i forgot to include the - sign for the exponential
 
DragonPetter said:
hmm my textbook is certainly not nice as it leaves this as an exercise with just telling me "(look up any integrals you need)"

That's weird.
 
On a wild hunch: this seems to be a traditional type problem in a first mathematical stat or calc-based probability course. If you've seen this (normal density integrating to 1)

<br /> \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac 1 {\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{\sigma^2}} \, dx = 1<br />

the "trick" is to identify your integrand as part of some normal density and go from there.

of course, the item i have posted could be what the hint "look up any integrals needed" refers to as well.
 
statdad said:
<br /> \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac 1 {\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{\sigma^2}} \, dx = 1<br />

You mean
<br /> \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac 1 {\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}} \, dx = 1<br />​
of course
 
foxjwill said:
You mean
<br /> \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac 1 {\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}} \, dx = 1<br />​
of course

Yes - many thanks for correcting my typing, and more for possibly clearing up a problem for the original poster.
 

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