EDIT: I'm assuming you mean
<br />
\int_{-\infty}^\infty\! e ^{-(x-a)^{2}}\, dx<br />
since what you wrote doesn't converge.Anyway, this is a very tricky integral that requires a trick. By far the best way starts as follows:
First, letting I denote the original integral (after replacing x-a with x), notice that
I = 2\int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-x^{2}}\, dx
by symmetry. Next comes the first trick:
I^2 = 4 \int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-x^{2}}\, dx \int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-x^{2}}\, dx = 4 \int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-x^{2}}\, dx \int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-y^{2}}\, dy
since the x in the integral is just a dummy variable. But then
I^2 = 4\int_0^\infty\int_0^\infty\! e ^{-(x^{2}+y^{2})}\,dx\,dy.
The traditional method is to at this point switch to polar coordinates, but a better way (I think) involves the substitution y=xu (so dy=xdu):
I^2 = 4\int_0^\infty\int_0^\infty\! e^{-x^2(1+u^2)}x\,dx\,du.
From here, I think you should be able to figure this out on your own.