How to Solve an Integral Using t-Substitution?

  • Thread starter Thread starter noospace
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The integral \(\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{\cos^2\alpha}{A + \sin^2\alpha}d\alpha\) can be effectively solved using the substitution \(t = \tan \alpha\). This leads to the transformation of the integral into a more manageable form, specifically \(\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{dt}{(1+t^2)(A+t^2+At^2)}\). The constants derived through partial fraction decomposition are \(C_1 = -1\) and \(C_2 = -\frac{1+A}{A}\). The final result of the integral evaluates to \(I = -\frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{(1+A)/A}{\sqrt{1+A}}\frac{\pi}{2}\).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of trigonometric identities and functions
  • Familiarity with integral calculus and substitution methods
  • Knowledge of partial fraction decomposition
  • Ability to manipulate and simplify algebraic expressions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the method of integration by substitution in depth
  • Learn about partial fraction decomposition techniques
  • Explore the properties of definite integrals over periodic functions
  • Investigate the application of trigonometric substitutions in integrals
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in calculus, mathematicians focusing on integral calculus, and anyone seeking to enhance their understanding of trigonometric integrals and substitution techniques.

noospace
Messages
69
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



[itex]\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{\cos^2\alpha}{A + \sin^2\alpha}d\alpha[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I believe when the trig functions all appear squared one may use the substitution [itex]t =\tan \alpha[/itex]. Then

[itex] t^2 + 1 = \sec^2\alpha \implies \cos^2\alpha = \frac{1}{t^2 +1}[/itex]
[itex] \sin^2\alpha = t^2\cos^2\alpha = \frac{t^2}{t^2+1}[/itex]
[itex] dt = \sec^2\alpha d\alpha \implies d\alpha = \frac{dt}{1 + t^2}[/itex]

Now use

[itex]\int_{0}^{2\pi} = \int_0^\pi + \int_\pi^{2\pi}[/itex].

[itex]\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\cos^2\alpha}{A + \sin^2\alpha}d\alpha = \int_{0}^\infty\frac{dt}{A(1+t^2)^2 +t^2(1+t^2)}[/itex]
[itex]= \int_{0}^\infty\frac{dt}{(1+t^2)(A+t^2+At^2)}[/itex]

[itex] 1 = C_1(A+ (1+A)t^2) + C_2 (1+t^2) \implies C_1 = -1,C_2 = -\frac{1+A}{A}<br /> [\latex]<br /> <br /> [itex]I = \int_{0}^\infty \frac{-1}{1+t^2}- \frac{(1+A)/A}{A+(1+A)t^2}[/itex]<br /> [itex]I = - \frac{\pi}{2}- (1+A)/A\int_{0}^\infty\frac{dt}{A+(1+A)t^2}[/itex]<br /> [itex]I = - \frac{\pi}{2}- \frac{(1+A)/A}{\sqrt{1+A}}\frac{1}{\sqrt{A}}\left.\tan^{-1}\frac{t}{\sqrt{A}}\right|_{0}^\inft[/itex]<br /> <br /> [itex]I = - \frac{\pi}{2}- \frac{(1+A)/A}{\sqrt{1+A}}\frac{1}{\sqrt{A}}\frac{\pi}{2}[/itex]<br /> <br /> Thanks.[/itex]
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
I'm with you up to the point where you derive the constants for the integration by partial fractions. (And I dropped the quotation because there's a hidden character that's really messing everything up here...)

For the [tex]t^{2}[/tex] terms, you have

[tex]C_{1}(1+A) + C_{2} = 0[/tex]

and for the constant terms,

[tex]C_{1}A + C_{2} = 1[/tex].

So [tex]C_{2} = 1 - AC_{1}[/tex],

giving [tex]C_{1} + AC_{1} + ( 1 - AC_{1} ) = 0[/tex].

Sure, you get [tex]C_{1} = -1[/tex], but wouldn't that lead to just

[tex]C_{2} = 1 - A(-1) = 1 + A[/tex]?

As another suggestion: upon plotting this function, I find that the area from x = 0 to x = [tex]2\pi[/tex] is four times the area from x = 0 to x = [tex]\frac{\pi}{2}[/tex].
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
3K
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K