Graduate How to switch from tensor products to wedge product

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on the transition from tensor products to wedge products in the context of differential forms. The wedge product is defined for two one-forms as $(A \wedge B)_{\mu\nu}=2A_{[\mu}B_{\nu]}$, illustrating its antisymmetric properties. The computation for the case of two forms, specifically when $n=2$, confirms that $\epsilon=\frac{1}{2} ( \epsilon_{\mu_{1}\mu_{2}}dx^{\mu_{1}}\wedge dx^{\mu_{2}})$ is correct, demonstrating that the wedge product is a specific type of tensor product. A key distinction is made that while $A \wedge A = 0$, $A \otimes A$ is not zero, emphasizing the unique characteristics of wedge products.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of differential forms and their notation
  • Familiarity with tensor products and their properties
  • Knowledge of antisymmetry in mathematical operations
  • Basic concepts of multilinear algebra
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of wedge products in differential geometry
  • Explore the implications of antisymmetry in tensor calculus
  • Learn about the applications of wedge products in physics, particularly in electromagnetism
  • Investigate the relationship between exterior algebra and differential forms
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Mathematicians, physicists, and students of differential geometry or algebraic topology who are looking to deepen their understanding of the relationship between tensor and wedge products.

victorvmotti
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Suppose we are given this definition of the wedge product for two one-forms in the component notation:

$$(A \wedge B)_{\mu\nu}=2A_{[\mu}B_{\nu]}=A_{\mu}B_{\nu}-A_{\nu}B_{\mu}$$

Now how can we show the switch from tensor products to wedge product below:

$$\epsilon=\epsilon_{\mu_{1}...\mu_{n}}dx^{\mu_{1}}\otimes...\otimes dx^{\mu_{n}}$$
$$=\frac{1}{n!}\epsilon_{\mu_{1}...\mu_{n}}dx^{\mu_{1}}\wedge...\wedge dx^{\mu_{n}}$$
 
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What happens to your equation, if ##A=B##?
 
Is this computation below for the case of ##n=2## correct?$$\epsilon= \frac{1}{2} ( \epsilon_{\mu_{1}\mu_{2}}dx^{\mu_{1}}\wedge dx^{\mu_{2}})$$
$$= \frac{1}{2} (\epsilon_{\mu_{1}\mu_{2}}dx^{\mu_{1}}\otimes dx^{\mu_{2}} - \epsilon_{\mu_{2}\mu_{1}}dx^{\mu_{2}}\otimes dx^{\mu_{1}})$$
$$= \frac{1}{2} ( \epsilon_{\mu_{1}\mu_{2}}dx^{\mu_{1}}\otimes dx^{\mu_{2}} - (-1) \epsilon_{\mu_{1}\mu_{2}}dx^{\mu_{1}}\otimes dx^{\mu_{2}} )$$
$$= \frac{1}{2}(2\epsilon_{\mu_{1}\mu_{2}}dx^{\mu_{1}}\otimes dx^{\mu_{2}})$$
$$= \epsilon_{\mu_{1}\mu_{2}}dx^{\mu_{1}}\otimes dx^{\mu_{2}}$$
 
Yes, the computation is correct. The wedge product is a particular type of tensor product.
 
dextercioby said:
Yes, the computation is correct. The wedge product is a particular type of tensor product.
In this literally universal view every product is a tensor product.

Edit: ##A \wedge A = 0## whereas ##A \otimes A## is not. This is a crucial difference.
 
Last edited:
Point 2. how we are getting 1/2 in front of the tensor product? it should have been A^B=AxB-BxA
 

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