- #1
SecretSnow
- 66
- 0
First of all, i need to say that i have read various threads posted by other users in physicsforum who have asked the same question. However, I still don't have a clear picture of why massless particles must travel at c. Personally, I have came up with an explanation which is rather simple, which may or may not be valid, and of course, i wish to validate it here. Another thing I wish to know is why must massless particles travel at c according to the 'equation way'? That is, through this equation [itex] E^2= (mc^2)^2 + (pc)^2 [/itex]
This is my own guess: All objects with mass can reach c, given that there is time for it to accelerate all the way to c. However, for massless particles they reach c immediately because they do not need time to accelerate and they reach c in no time, or 0 seconds. Hence, we perceive that all massless particles must travel at c, since there is no way in which we can view a massless particle to be traveling at a speed lower than c because it just reaches c instantly. Is this reasoning valid? However, there's another question. Am i right to say that as long an object is allowed to accelerate indefinitely in space in the same direction without any resistance or collision, it will reach the cosmic speed limit?
Of course, I would definitely like to understand this concept through the 'legitimate' way or 'equation way'. These are some links which otaher users have posted about the same question:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=502572
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=202934
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=481362
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=396044
This is my own guess: All objects with mass can reach c, given that there is time for it to accelerate all the way to c. However, for massless particles they reach c immediately because they do not need time to accelerate and they reach c in no time, or 0 seconds. Hence, we perceive that all massless particles must travel at c, since there is no way in which we can view a massless particle to be traveling at a speed lower than c because it just reaches c instantly. Is this reasoning valid? However, there's another question. Am i right to say that as long an object is allowed to accelerate indefinitely in space in the same direction without any resistance or collision, it will reach the cosmic speed limit?
Of course, I would definitely like to understand this concept through the 'legitimate' way or 'equation way'. These are some links which otaher users have posted about the same question:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=502572
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=202934
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=481362
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=396044