aruwin said:Hello.
How do I know when to use Cauchy integral formula. Why do we use the formula in this question? As you can see in my attempt, I got stuck.
What is f(z), z, z0 here?
chisigma said:Instead of the Cauchy integral formula it is better for You to use the residue theorem that extablishes that...
$\displaystyle \int_{\gamma} f(z)\ dz = 2\ \pi\ i\ \sum_{j} r_{j}\ (1)$
... where $r_{j}$ is a residue of the j-th pole of f(*) inside $\gamma$. In your case the only pole inside $\gamma$ is z=-i and is...
$\displaystyle r_{1} = \lim_{z \rightarrow -i} \frac{(z+i)}{z^{2}+1} = \lim_{z \rightarrow -i} \frac{1}{z-i} = -\frac{1}{2\ i}\ (2)$
... so that is...
$\displaystyle \int_{\gamma} \frac{dz}{z^{2}+1}= - \pi\ (3)$
Kind regards
$\chi$ $\sigma$
aruwin said:But I haven't learned about residue yet. So, I think I have to solve it using cauchy.
chisigma said:Very well!... so we remember that the Cauchy integral formula give the value of an f(z) if z is inside a closed contour $\gamma$ in which f(z) is analitic...
$\displaystyle f(a) = \frac{1}{2\ \pi\ i} \int_{\gamma} \frac{f(z)}{z-a}\ d z\ (1)$
If You choose $\displaystyle f(z) = \frac{1}{z-i}$, $a=-i$ and apply (1) You obtain...
$\displaystyle \int_{\gamma} \frac{d z}{1 + z^{2}} = - 2\ \pi\ i\ \frac{1}{2\ i} = - \pi$
Kind regards
$\chi$ $\sigma$