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How would you integrate Cantor's function

  1. Jun 19, 2006 #1
    On the interval from 0 to 1?
  2. jcsd
  3. Jun 19, 2006 #2
    integrating cantor's function

    How would you integrate it from 0 to 1? For those of you who don't know what it is here is a link http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor_function.
    Is it possible to do this as some sort of geometric series? Any help would be appreaciated.
  4. Jun 19, 2006 #3


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    It looks like itself upside down.
  5. Jun 19, 2006 #4
    Well how can I integrate it? It's almost like an infinite piece wise function.
  6. Jun 19, 2006 #5

    matt grime

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    If its integral (over the range [0,1]) exists, let it be I, StatusX's hint was that 1-f(x) is the same function but going downhill not uphill, so the integral of 1-f(x) over [0,1] is also I. You can do the rest from here surely. The point is the function is very symmetric, so you can exploit that symmetry, just like you can integrate sin(x) from -t to t for any t without knowing the indefinite integral of sin(x).
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