I don't understand this property of arctan(x)'

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The derivative of arctan(x) is established as 1/(x^2 + 1), while the derivative of arctan(x - sqrt(x^2 + 1)) simplifies to 1/(2(x^2 + 1)). The discussion highlights the relationship between these derivatives, specifically questioning why 1/2 * A does not equal B. A user provided a Wolfram solution that confirms the derivative and suggests that arctan(x) equals 2 * arctan(x - sqrt(x^2 + 1)) + C, with C consistently yielding π/4 across various numerical tests. The conversation emphasizes the importance of the chain rule in deriving these results.

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The derivative of arctan(x) is \frac{1}{x^2+1}

The derivative of arctan(x - sqrt(x^2 + 1) is \frac{1}{2(x^2+1)}

take arctan(x) to be A and arctan(x-sqrt(x^2 + 1)) to be B.

A'=\frac{1}{x^2+1}
B'=\frac{1}{2}*A'

Why doesn't \frac{1}{2}*A=B?

If you'd like, I can prove the derivative for you, but it's moderately tedious to simplify it to that point.
 
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mr_garlic said:
The derivative of arctan(x) is \frac{1}{x^2+1}

The derivative of arctan(x - sqrt(x^2 + 1) is \frac{1}{2(x^2+1)}

take arctan(x) to be A and arctan(x-sqrt(x^2 + 1)) to be B.

A'=\frac{1}{x^2+1}
B'=\frac{1}{2}*A'

Why doesn't \frac{1}{2}*A=B?

If you'd like, I can prove the derivative for you, but it's moderately tedious to simplify it to that point.
Yes, I would like to see your derivation of B'. I get nothing like that!
 
That's what I came out with!
 
I plugged this into mathematica and it indeed simplifies to \frac{1}{2+2x^2}. Which would suggest that \arctan(x)=2 \arctan(x-\sqrt{x^2+1})+C. Therefore C=\arctan(x)-2\arctan(x-\sqrt{x^2+1})=\frac{\pi}{4}.

Picture:
http://img32.imageshack.us/img32/3028/arctan.jpg

I am not sure how to find C yet, mathematica wasn't able to find it and I am not in the mood to try and symplify it currently. However all the numerical values I tried yielded pi/4.
 
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Cyosis said:
I am not sure how to find C yet, mathematica wasn't able to find it and I am not in the mood to try and symplify it currently. However all the numerical values I tried yielded pi/4.

One way is to set

<br /> z=\tan^{-1} \left(x - \sqrt{1 + x^2} \right),<br />

so that

\tan z = x - \sqrt{1 + x^2}

Solving for x then leads directly to your result.
 
Haven't had a chance to check the thread until now.

I completely forgot that there's a constant!

That makes so much sense, thank you everyone.

P.S. I'm only in the first calc class, this just really bothered me, and I didn't want to wait till class on tuesday to find out why it worked out the way it did.
 
That's a clever way to solve it George.

Mr_garlic, your first result was correct. After simplification that ugly looking expression will reduce to the nice expression you found in your first post.
 

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