If f(a)=g(a) and f'(x)>g'(x) for all x, use MVT to prove f(x)>g(x)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that if f(a) = g(a) and f'(x) > g'(x) for all x > a, then f(x) > g(x) for all x > a, using the Mean Value Theorem (MVT). Participants are exploring a graphical argument and the implications of the MVT in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss defining h(x) = f(x) - g(x) and its derivative h'(x) = f'(x) - g'(x). There are attempts to apply the MVT on the interval [a, x] to derive inequalities. Some participants express confusion about the validity of their steps and the implications of their conclusions.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the application of the MVT and its implications. Some participants are questioning the correctness of their reasoning and the relationships they are establishing between the derivatives and the functions. Guidance is being sought regarding the interpretation of the MVT in this scenario.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the implications of their mathematical manipulations and the definitions involved. There is a recognition of potential errors in reasoning, particularly concerning the equalities derived from h'(c).

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1. Homework Statement
Give a graphical argument that if f(a)=g(a) and f'(x)>g'(x) for all x>a, then f(x)>g(x) for all x>a. Use the Mean Value Theorem to prove it.


2. Homework Equations



3. The Attempt at a Solution
I have sketched a graphical argument to show that f(x)>g(x). This is what I got:

Let h(x) = f(x) - g(x).
Then h'(x) = f'(x) - g'(x) > 0 for any x > a.
Now apply the MVT on the interval [a, x].

So.. h'(c) = (h(x) - h(a))/(x -a)

And then
[tex]h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a)}{x - a} > 0[/tex]
[tex]h'(c) =f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a) > 0[/tex]
[tex]h'(c) =f(x) - f(a) > g(x) - g(a)[/tex]
[tex]h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a} > \frac{g(x) - g(a)}{x-a}[/tex]
==> h'(c) = f(x) > g(x)
==> f(x) > f(x) for all x>a

But I feel like this is wrong?!
 
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NWeid1 said:
1. Homework Statement
Give a graphical argument that if f(a)=g(a) and f'(x)>g'(x) for all x>a, then f(x)>g(x) for all x>a. Use the Mean Value Theorem to prove it.


2. Homework Equations



3. The Attempt at a Solution
I have sketched a graphical argument to show that f(x)>g(x). This is what I got:

Let h(x) = f(x) - g(x).
Then h'(x) = f'(x) - g'(x) > 0 for any x > a.
Now apply the MVT on the interval [a, x].

So.. h'(c) = (h(x) - h(a))/(x -a)

And then
[tex]h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a)}{x - a} > 0[/tex]
[tex]h'(c) =f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a) > 0[/tex]
[tex]h'(c) =f(x) - f(a) > g(x) - g(a)[/tex]
[tex]h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a} > \frac{g(x) - g(a)}{x-a}[/tex]
==> h'(c) = f(x) > g(x)
==> f(x) > f(x) for all x>a

But I feel like this is wrong?!
The equalities that all begin with h'(c)= look very wrong. They're saying that a single number h'(c) is equal to several different numbers. That clearly can't be true. I also don't see why you conclude that h'(c)>0.
 
Well, I know to set h(x) = f(x) - g(x) but I don't know where to go from there. lol
 
NWeid1 said:
Well, I know to set h(x) = f(x) - g(x) but I don't know where to go from there. lol
The good news is that that's the right way to start. :smile:

Can you tell me exactly what the MVT says about h on the interval [a,x]?
 

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