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## Homework Statement

if this statement is true:

[itex]\int_0^\infty f(x) dx= 0[/itex]

then is this true?

[itex] f(x) = 0[/itex] in domain [itex]x\in [0,\infty)[/itex]

## Homework Equations

-NA-

## The Attempt at a Solution

Hmm.. I can't come out with a formula that refute that. I would think of an odd function that changes sign in [itex]\infty/2[/itex], except it doesn't exist.

I would think it's false, but i need some example...