if this statement is true:
[itex]\int_0^\infty f(x) dx= 0[/itex]
then is this true?
[itex] f(x) = 0[/itex] in domain [itex]x\in [0,\infty)[/itex]
The Attempt at a Solution
Hmm.. I can't come out with a formula that refute that. I would think of an odd function that changes sign in [itex]\infty/2[/itex], except it doesn't exist.
I would think it's false, but i need some example...