Imaginary sinusoidal exponential

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spaghetti3451
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I need to convince myself that

##e^{ikr\text{cos}\ \theta}=\frac{\text{sin}\ \theta}{kr}##.

Could you please help me with it?
 
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Sorry, there was a typo.

How about this one:

##\text{exp}({ikr\text{cos}\ \theta}) = \frac{\text{exp}(ikr)-\text{exp}(-ikr)}{2ikr}##?
 
The Euler formula is ##e^{i\phi}= \text{cos}\ \phi + \text{sin}\ \phi##.

I don't see how ##\text{exp}(ikr\text{cos}\ \theta) = \frac{\text{sin}(kr)}{kr}##.
 
failexam said:
The Euler formula is ##e^{i\phi}= \text{cos}\ \phi + \text{sin}\ \phi##.
It's ##e^{i\phi}= \text{cos}\ \phi + i\text{sin}\ \phi##.
failexam said:
I don't see how ##\text{exp}(ikr\text{cos}\ \theta) = \frac{\text{sin}(kr)}{kr}##.
Indeed, I too, do not see how that can be true.
 
The following is taken from page 39 of Matthew Schwartz's 'Introduction to Quantum Field Theory.' My above posts refer to the third and fourth lines of the following calculation:

Capture.jpg
a

Would you please have a look and let me know what I'm missing in the previous posts?
 
$$\int_{-1}^1 d(\cos \theta) e^{ikr\cos \theta} = \frac{1}{ikr}e^{ikr\cos \theta}\Big|_{-1}^1 = \frac{e^{ikr}-e^{-ikr}}{ikr}$$
Then in the third line you have ##\frac{\sin kr}{k}## as the integrand to be integrated from 0 to infiinity. The function ##\frac{\sin kr}{k}## is an even function, thus
$$
\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin kr}{k} \, dk = \frac{1}{2} \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\sin kr}{k} \, dk
$$
 
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Thanks! I feel like a total idiot now! :frown: