Suppose F(x, y) is C1. F(0, 0) = 0. What conditions on F will guarantee that the equation F(F(x, y), y) = 0 can be solved for y as a C1 function of x near (0, 0) ?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

would it simply be dF/dy not equal 0 ?

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# Implicit function on functions composed of itself

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