Improper Integral: 1/x2 | Converges to -1?

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andrey21
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Decide if the following improper integral converges or not

Integrate 1/x2

limits are 1 0

Now by simple integration we can see that:

[x-2] = -x-1

Substituting in 1 and 0:

-(1/1) - 0

So series converges to -1

Is this correct?
 
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:smile: I don't understand why I have put that. With that in mind I don't know what to put there??
 
andrey21 said:
:smile: I don't understand why I have put that. With that in mind I don't know what to put there??

Look up the definition of improper integral. You don't put anything into -1/x. You have to find the limit as x->0 of -1/x.
 
In this integral the integrand is undefined at one of the endpoints of integration. You need to use a limit to determine whether this integral is convergent.
[tex]\lim_{a \to 0^+}\int_a^b\frac{dx}{x^2}[/tex]
 
Sorry I accidentally deleted my previous post, that means the integral itself tends to infinity and so is Divergent.
 
Great thanks Dick, I do have a similar problem but the integral is:

1/x

So integrating gives:

[ln x]

So as x tends to zero the limit will be??
 
andrey21 said:
Great thanks Dick, I do have a similar problem but the integral is:

1/x

So integrating gives:

[ln x]

So as x tends to zero the limit will be??

You tell me. e^(-100) is pretty close to zero. What's ln(e^(-100))? Can you name some other numbers even closer to zero?
 
Well ln and e cancel each other out so leave -100 correct?
 
So as x tends to zero the limit is -100??
 
Well e^(-101) , e^(-102) etc so could I say e^(-infinity)

so ln e^(-infinity) so limit is -infinity
 
Thank you dick for all your help