Improper integral comparison test

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the convergence of the improper integral \(\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{x^2}{x^5+1} dx\). The user successfully demonstrates convergence by comparing it to the function \(\frac{x^2}{x^5}\), which simplifies to \(\frac{1}{x^3}\) and is known to converge on the interval \((1, \infty)\). The user also considers the area under the curve from \(x=0\) to \(x=1\) to support their conclusion. The comparison test is confirmed as a valid method for establishing the convergence of the original integral.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of improper integrals
  • Familiarity with the comparison test for convergence
  • Knowledge of basic calculus concepts, including integration techniques
  • Ability to analyze functions and their behavior at infinity
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the comparison test in detail, focusing on its application in improper integrals
  • Learn about convergence and divergence criteria for improper integrals
  • Explore integration techniques for rational functions, particularly those involving limits
  • Investigate other convergence tests, such as the limit comparison test and the ratio test
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Students and educators in calculus, mathematicians focusing on real analysis, and anyone interested in mastering improper integrals and convergence tests.

hitemup
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\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{x^2 dx}{x^5+1}
The question asks whether this function diverges or converges.
I have tried to do some comparisons with x^2/(x^6+1), and x^2/(x^3+1) but it didn't end up with something good.

Then I decided to compare it with \frac{x^2}{x^4+1}
Since this function converges and is greater than the given function on (1,\infty ) it proves that the given function converges too. But it almost takes one page to integrate this function so I thought there must be an easier way to handle this. What other function can I think of rather than this?
 
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I think I've found it.

\frac{x^2}{x^5} is greater than the given function. Can I do comparison test between these two on (1, infinity)? Then I add the rectangle formed by x = 0 y =0 and x= 1 y=1/2 which comes from the given function. Sum of these two areas must be finite and greater than x^2/(x^5+1), so it proves asked expression is convergent, doesn't it?
 
hitemup said:
I think I've found it.

\frac{x^2}{x^5} is greater than the given function.
This is the most obvious one to use for comparison. It should have been your first choice, but it takes some practice to be able to notice things like this right away. Note that x2/x5 is the same as 1/x3.
hitemup said:
Can I do comparison test between these two on (1, infinity)?
I don't see anything wrong with that. Your original integrand is defined on the interval [0, 1], so it's easy enough to evaluate the integral using those limits. Then you can both integrals on [1, ∞).
hitemup said:
Then I add the rectangle formed by x = 0 y =0 and x= 1 y=1/2 which comes from the given function. Sum of these two areas must be finite and greater than x^2/(x^5+1), so it proves asked expression is convergent, doesn't it?
 
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