In search of a counter-example

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The discussion explores whether the convergence of the product of two sequences to zero implies that at least one of the sequences converges to zero. It is argued that it is possible for both sequences to diverge while their product converges to zero. An example provided illustrates that if one sequence converges to zero, the other can diverge, specifically when the product converges. The conversation emphasizes that if both sequences converge, then their product's limit must also reflect that convergence. Ultimately, the conclusion is that the limit behavior of the product does not necessitate the convergence of the individual sequences.
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Homework Statement



Is it true that if {pn}{qn}-> 0, that either pn or qn converges to 0?



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The Attempt at a Solution

So far I've made an argument for why it doesn't have to follow (Because we don't know that both sequences converge, and we could have two divergent sequences or a divergent sequence and a convergent sequence whose product converges, for example the alternating harmonic series), However I can't think of any particular counter-example where the product converges to 0.
 
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Try to arrange it so that the even terms of {p_n} converge to zero, but {p_n} does not, and conversely, the odd terms of {q_n} converge to zero, but {q_n} does not.
 
That can't happen though can it? If {p_n}(even)-> 0, then the even terms form a subsequence, so wouldn't the sequence have to converge to 0 also?
 
nevermind, I got it I think.

(1,0,1,0,1...)
(0,1,0,1,0...)

My concern isn't relevant because they diverge.
 
Yes, if {x_n} converges to x and {y_n} converges to y, then {x_ny_n} must converge to xy. So if {x_n} and {y_n} converge AND {x_ny_n} converges to 0, either x or y must be 0.

But you can find sequences that do NOT converge but {x_ny_n} converges to 0.
 
Hm... what about if {x_ny_n} converges, but only {x_n} or {y_n} converges?

Would that be possible, or would {x_n}-> x imply {y_n} also converged as well?
 
n*(1/n) converges, right?
 
Quantumpencil said:
Hm... what about if {x_ny_n} converges, but only {x_n} or {y_n} converges?

Would that be possible, or would {x_n}-> x imply {y_n} also converged as well?

As dick showed, it is possible to have {x_n*y_n} and {x_n} converge, but {y_n} diverge. However, this is only possible if x_n \rightarrow 0. Because if x_n y_n \rightarrow L and x_n \rightarrow x \neq 0, then applying the main limit theorem shows that:

\lim y_n = \lim \frac{x_n y_n}{x_n} = \frac{\lim x_n y_n}{\lim x_n} = \frac{L}{x}

i.e. y_n \rightarrow \frac{L}{x}
 

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