In search of a counter-example

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence properties of sequences, specifically whether the convergence of the product of two sequences to zero implies that at least one of the sequences converges to zero. The original poster questions the validity of this implication and seeks a counter-example.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to argue against the implication by considering divergent sequences and their products. Some participants suggest constructing sequences with specific convergence behaviors, while others question the assumptions about subsequences and convergence.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring various scenarios and examples. Some have proposed potential constructions for sequences, while others are clarifying the implications of convergence and divergence. There is no explicit consensus yet, but productive lines of reasoning are being examined.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the implications of convergence for sequences and their products, with some noting the challenge of finding specific counter-examples. The discussion reflects on the nature of convergence and the conditions under which products of sequences behave in certain ways.

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Homework Statement



Is it true that if {pn}{qn}-> 0, that either pn or qn converges to 0?



Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution

So far I've made an argument for why it doesn't have to follow (Because we don't know that both sequences converge, and we could have two divergent sequences or a divergent sequence and a convergent sequence whose product converges, for example the alternating harmonic series), However I can't think of any particular counter-example where the product converges to 0.
 
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Try to arrange it so that the even terms of {p_n} converge to zero, but {p_n} does not, and conversely, the odd terms of {q_n} converge to zero, but {q_n} does not.
 
That can't happen though can it? If {p_n}(even)-> 0, then the even terms form a subsequence, so wouldn't the sequence have to converge to 0 also?
 
nevermind, I got it I think.

(1,0,1,0,1...)
(0,1,0,1,0...)

My concern isn't relevant because they diverge.
 
Yes, if {x_n} converges to x and {y_n} converges to y, then {x_ny_n} must converge to xy. So if {x_n} and {y_n} converge AND {x_ny_n} converges to 0, either x or y must be 0.

But you can find sequences that do NOT converge but {x_ny_n} converges to 0.
 
Hm... what about if {x_ny_n} converges, but only {x_n} or {y_n} converges?

Would that be possible, or would {x_n}-> x imply {y_n} also converged as well?
 
n*(1/n) converges, right?
 
Quantumpencil said:
Hm... what about if {x_ny_n} converges, but only {x_n} or {y_n} converges?

Would that be possible, or would {x_n}-> x imply {y_n} also converged as well?

As dick showed, it is possible to have {x_n*y_n} and {x_n} converge, but {y_n} diverge. However, this is only possible if [itex]x_n \rightarrow 0[/itex]. Because if [itex]x_n y_n \rightarrow L[/itex] and [itex]x_n \rightarrow x \neq 0[/itex], then applying the main limit theorem shows that:

[tex]\lim y_n = \lim \frac{x_n y_n}{x_n} = \frac{\lim x_n y_n}{\lim x_n} = \frac{L}{x}[/tex]

i.e. [itex]y_n \rightarrow \frac{L}{x}[/itex]
 

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