Is 0^0 indefinite in Von Neuman Entropy?

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The discussion centers on the treatment of the expression \(0^0\) in the context of Von Neumann Entropy, specifically the formula \(S(\rho) = -k_B \sum_j p_j \log_e p_j\). Participants agree that for \(p_j = 0\), the term \(p_j \log_e p_j\) is defined as zero to prevent impossible states from contributing to entropy. The limit \(\lim_{x \to 0} x \log(x) = 0\) is confirmed using L'Hôpital's rule, establishing that the mathematics is sound and consistent with entropy principles.

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anuttarasammyak
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TL;DR
Shannon and Von Neumann entropy assume x log_a x = 0 for limit of small x. Is it justified in mathematics ?
Hello. In Von Neuman Entropy
S(\rho):=-k_B \ \Sigma_j \ p_j \ \log_e \ p_j
It is assumed that for ##p_j=0##
p_j \ \log_e p_j=0
Is it correct mathematics though ##0^0## is indefinite.
 
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For positive real x you get ##\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0} x log(x) = 0##. It's plausible to define the expression to be zero at x=0. That way impossible states do not contribute to the entropy, as expected.
 
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Thanks. I would derive it. Let y=1/x
\lim_{x \rightarrow +0} \ x \log x= - \lim_{y \rightarrow +\infty} \frac{\log y}{y} = - \lim_{y \rightarrow +\infty} \frac{1}{y} = -0
At the last step I used L'Hopital's rule though I am not certain for this infinite limit. I should appreciate your advice.
 
I'm a bit confused on the first step you did, shouldn't you get ##\log (1/y)##?

Edit: oh, that's where the minus sign is from. Looks fine

I think you can just leave it as x also.

$$ x\log(x) = \frac{\log(x)}{ 1/x}.$$
 
Thanks. Yes, ##\log \frac{1}{y} = - \log y ## , I made.
Following your way
\lim \frac{\log x}{1/x}=\lim \frac{1/x}{-1/x^2} = - \lim x = -0
Again I used L'hopital's rule.
 
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That looks right to me!
 
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