Induced emf in a square loop in a time-varying magnetic field

  • Thread starter Thread starter robert25pl
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Faraday's law Law
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Start your own thread to ask a follow-up.
6 replies · 3K views
robert25pl
Messages
62
Reaction score
0
Induced emf around a closed path in a time-varying magnetic field.
A magnetic field is given in the xz-plane by B=Bo*cos(pi)(x-Uot)ay Wb/M^2. Consider a rigid square loop situated in the xz-plane with its vertices at (x,0,1), (x,0,2),(x+1,0,2) and (x+1,0,1).
1.What is the expression for the emf induced around the loop in the sense defined by connecting the above points.
2.If the loop is moving with the velocity [tex]V = U_{o}a_{x}[/tex] m/s instead of being stationary what is the induced emf

This is what I got for flux. Can someone check me if I’m doing this right? If it is ok then I can go to next step. I hope, the latex code comes out right. Thanks for help.

Sorry, I should be more specific. This is the exact expression:
[tex]\ B = B_{o}cos{\Pi}(x-U_{0}t)a_{y}[/tex]
So:
[tex]\psi=\int_{s}B\cdot\,ds=\int_{0}^{2} \int_{0}^{1}B_{0}cos{\Pi}(x-U_{0}t)a_{y}\cdot\, dx\,dz\,a_{y}[/tex]

My problem is that I'm not sure that integral limits are correct. Thanks
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Can you double check your expression for B. For the expression you have given,

when y=0 (xz plane) , B=0. Therefore flux=0 since the loop is also on the xz plane.
 
I am assuming ay is the unit vector along y direction. Magnetic field B is independent of z. It is a function of only x. Therefore, integrate only with restpect to x.

[tex]\psi=-\frac{d}{dt}\int_{s}B\cdot\,ds=-\frac{d}{dt}\int_{x}^{x+1}B_{0}cos{\Pi}(x-U_{0}t) dx[/tex]

Induced emf is a function of x.
 
Last edited:
Thanks Gamma, I got the answer.

[tex]-2B_{0}U_{o}cos{\Pi}(x-U_{0}t)[/tex]

So for part 2, emf would be the same because the loop is perpendicular to B? Is that right?
 
So for part 2, emf would be the same because the loop is perpendicular to B? Is that right?


Not really. Now x is a function of t.

[tex]\psi=\int_{s}B\cdot\,ds=\int_{x}^{x+1}B_{0}cos{\Pi}(x-U_{0}t) dx[/tex]

First evaluate the above integral. Then differentiate wrt to t. When you differentiate the above to find the emf, don't forget x=x(t). Use the fact that dx/dt = Uo
 
Gamma said:
First evaluate the above integral. Then differentiate wrt to t. When you differentiate the above to find the emf, don't forget x=x(t). Use the fact that dx/dt = Uo

I did integrate and differentiate and induced emf is equal to:

[tex]-2B_{0}U_{o}cos{\Pi}(x-U_{0}t)[/tex]

But in second part of problem "If the loop is moving with the velocity [tex]V = U_{o}a_{x}[/tex] m/s instead of being stationary what is the induced emf"

I think that emf would be 0 because moving loop will produce a positive current. But I don't know how to proved it.
 
I have explained how to go about it. First find [tex]\psi = \psi (x)[/tex].
See my post #5. Yes, you will get zero.

regards.