Infinte distance with finite energy?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the concept of whether an object can travel an infinite distance with finite energy, utilizing the equation E = (1/2)mv². Participants explore the implications of integrating velocity over time, concluding that a body can indeed travel an infinite distance if its total energy remains positive. The conversation highlights the necessity of considering external forces and fields, as well as the conditions set by Newton's laws and Kepler's principles. Ultimately, the consensus is that with the right conditions, infinite travel is theoretically possible.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Newton's laws of motion
  • Familiarity with basic calculus concepts, particularly integration
  • Knowledge of kinetic energy formula E = (1/2)mv²
  • Awareness of gravitational fields and their effects on motion
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the implications of Newton's laws in non-isolated systems
  • Study the concept of energy conservation in physics
  • Explore advanced calculus techniques for integrating motion equations
  • Investigate the effects of external fields on object motion
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This discussion is beneficial for physics students, educators, and enthusiasts interested in the theoretical aspects of motion, energy conservation, and the implications of classical mechanics in real-world scenarios.

maughanster
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Let's say we have an object. And we then say that E = (1/2)mv2.
so we solve for velocity and say that
v = (2E/m)^(1/2)

then integrate both sides with respect to time

∫(2E/m)^(1/2)dt= ∫v dt

so we then have

(2E/m)^(1/2)t = distance

so if time was infinitely large (long) could an object travel an infinite distance if it was given in infinitesimally small unit of energy?

as i typed this out i realized that without an acceleration in obviously could but in my head this math means it's accelerating infinitely slow.

Don't hate me if this is wrong. I've only taken Calc 1 and high school physics. and I also have trouble explaining my scientific thoughts to others haha oh well. Please be indepth when denying my math. I also did substite E for (1/2)mv^2 at

∫(2E/m)^(1/2)dt= ∫v dt

this part but i got d = d^(1/2) for an answer. Thanks!
 
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Newton's first law tells us that this must be true.
 
Hmm, it's a little difficult for me.
 
But could you accelarate the object over an infinite distance with finite energy?
 
Remember that E is a function of time, at least I think it is, so the integral might not be so simple.
 
maughanster said:
But could you accelarate the object over an infinite distance with finite energy?
Not unless it is a hyperbolicalaly decreasing acceleration -- but you can just briefly accelerate to an infinitessimally small speed and just continue at that speed forever.
 
With what you just said and thinking things through a bit I think I finally figured out what i wanted to in the first place. thanks!
 
I agree with Russ Watters, but also would like to light up some extra points.
The situation of traveling forever is possible if the total energy of the body is positive. You can't just express E = 1/2 mv^2.
That would be the case if you are thinking that the body is alone in the space but in real life it is in a number of fields. So, the only condition according to Newton and Kepler is taking the total energy to be positive. So, the answer is YES. A body can travel infinite distance with finite energy.
 

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