Leaping antalope
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can anyone help me with this problem...
the integral from 0 to half pi: 1/(1+cosx)dx...
Thanks...
the integral from 0 to half pi: 1/(1+cosx)dx...
Thanks...
Leaping antalope said:so 1/(1+cosx)=(1-cosx)/(1-cos^2x)=(1-cosx)/sin^2x=(1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x)...
Aha~now i get it
the integration of 1/sin^2x is -cotx, and cosx/sin^2x=cosx*sin^(-2)x, and the integral of this is -1/sinx
so the integration of 1/(1+cosx) is -cotx+1/sinx, but now i have a problem, cot(half pi) does not exist...
help still needed...
Leaping antalope said:The answer is 1. Or maybe we should convert (1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x) so that we can substitute half pi and 0 in it...not sure...
arildno said:Hint use the relation:
[tex]\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})=\frac{1+\cos(x)}{2}[/tex]
marlon said:I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.
[tex]\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx[/tex]
and you know that [tex]dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})[/tex]
and
[tex]\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)[/tex]
regards
marlon
marlon said:I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.
[tex]\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx[/tex]
and you know that [tex]dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})[/tex]
and
[tex]\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)[/tex]
regards
marlon