Integral of $\log (1+a\cos x)$ from 0 to $\pi$

  • Thread starter Thread starter utkarshakash
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integral
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The integral \(\int_0^{\pi} \log (1+a\cos x) dx\) can be evaluated using Leibnitz's Rule, leading to the derivative \(F'(a)=\int_0^{\pi} \frac{\cos x}{1+a \cos x} dx\). A substitution of \(sin x = t\) transforms the integral, but the limits of integration must be handled carefully. The integral does not evaluate to zero, as the behavior of \(\cos x\) changes sign over the interval, necessitating the splitting of the integral into two parts for accurate evaluation.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of integral calculus, specifically definite integrals.
  • Familiarity with Leibnitz's Rule for differentiation under the integral sign.
  • Knowledge of trigonometric identities and properties, particularly for \(\cos x\) and \(\sin x\).
  • Experience with substitution methods in integration.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the application of Leibnitz's Rule in more complex integrals.
  • Learn about the properties of logarithmic integrals and their evaluations.
  • Explore techniques for handling integrals with variable limits and sign changes.
  • Investigate the implications of trigonometric substitutions in integral calculus.
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in calculus, mathematicians interested in integral evaluations, and anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of logarithmic and trigonometric integrals.

utkarshakash
Gold Member
Messages
852
Reaction score
13

Homework Statement


Evaluate [itex]\displaystyle \int_0^{\pi} \log (1+a\cos x) dx[/itex]

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution


Using Leibnitz's Rule,
F'(a)=[itex]\displaystyle \int_0^{\pi} \dfrac{\cos x}{1+a \cos x} dx[/itex]

Now, If I assume sinx=t, then the above integral changes to
[itex]\displaystyle \int_0^{0} \dfrac{dt}{1+a \sqrt{1-t^2}}[/itex]

Since both the limits are zero now, shouldn't the value of integral be 0! :confused:
 
Physics news on Phys.org
utkarshakash said:
[itex]\displaystyle \int_0^{0} \dfrac{dt}{1+a \sqrt{1-t^2}}[/itex]

Since both the limits are zero now, shouldn't the value of integral be 0! :confused:
No. For one thing, the use of the square root function hides the fact that cos(t) will change sign over the range. Split it into two integrals to be safe.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
Replies
12
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 105 ·
4
Replies
105
Views
11K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K