Is the Integral of Cosine Function Always Zero?

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The discussion centers on the conjecture that the integral of the form ∫_0^{2π} f(a + b cos φ) sin φ dφ equals zero for arbitrary constants a and b and any function f. Participants explore proving this by using a substitution method, specifically x = cos φ, which requires breaking the integration into two intervals due to the non-1-to-1 nature of the cosine function over [0, 2π]. The conclusion is reached that the integral evaluates to zero, particularly when considering the properties of odd functions and the symmetry of the sine function. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding function behavior in integration. Overall, the integral of the cosine function in this context is confirmed to be zero.
daudaudaudau
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Hi. I have been experimenting a little to come up with the following "conjecture"
<br /> \int_0^{2\pi}d\phi f(a+b\cos\phi)\sin\phi=0<br />
where a and b are arbitrary constants and f(x) is any function. Is this true? I guess it can be shown by expanding f in a power series of cosines?
 
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hi daudaudaudau! :smile:

doesn't work for f = √, a = b :wink:
 
Yes, I'm getting that that this is true. It can be proven using the substitution
x=\cos{\phi}
dx=-\sin{\phi}d\phi
But this substitution is not 1-to-1: Each x value corresponds to 2 phi values on [0,2pi]. So you need to break the region of integration into [0,pi] and [pi,2pi]. If you look at the graph of the cos function, you will see it is 1-to-1 on these two intervals and goes from 1 to -1 on [0,pi] and from -1 to 1 on [pi,2pi]. So the integral becomes:
<br /> \int_0^{2\pi}d\phi f(a+b\cos\phi)\sin\phi= \int_1^{-1}-f(a+bx)dx + \int_{-1}^{1}-f(a+bx)dx = \int_{-1}^{1}f(a+bx)dx + \int_{-1}^{1}-f(a+bx)dx = 0Tiny-tim: I get this even in the example you gave.
 
hmm … i think I've been misled by the ambiguity of the √ function :redface:

yes, we can get it directly from the original integral …

if f = g', then it's ∫ [g(a + bcosφ)]' dφ, = [g(a + bcosφ)]φ=0
 
tiny-tim said:
hmm … i think I've been misled by the ambiguity of the √ function :redface:

yes, we can get it directly from the original integral …

if f = g', then it's ∫ [g(a + bcosφ)]' dφ, = [g(a + bcosφ)]φ=0

Happens to everyone :wink:
That is a better way of proving it.
 
tiny-tim said:
hmm … i think I've been misled by the ambiguity of the √ function :redface:

yes, we can get it directly from the original integral …

if f = g', then it's ∫ [g(a + bcosφ)]' dφ, = [g(a + bcosφ)]φ=0

What happened to the sine function?
 
chain rule :wink:
 
clever :-)
 
The integral from -pi to pi is zero, because you are integrating an odd function.

And the integral from -pi to pi equals the integral from 0 to 2pi.

QED.
 

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